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French
My monolingual French dictionary (1989) has "esperluette", while my bilingual dictionary has (1978) "esperluète". Could a native speaker please verify which is correct (or whether both are). Thank you. -- Paul G 11:53, 18 Jan 2004 (UTC)
- Both are correct (I mean: "used"), and so are their variations: perluète, éperluette, etc. (The name of the sign seems to have been merely an oral tradition until quite recently, hence the variation of forms.) —147.210.22.149 01:02, 28 March 2007 (UTC)Reply
Contradictory etymology
The ety says it is a contraction of "and per se and", meaning "(the character) '&' by itself is 'and', but — according to the recital explanation that follows — it actually means ...and '&' by itself. Equinox 20:58, 23 October 2008 (UTC)Reply
- Well, I've fixed it now. Equinox 13:34, 8 November 2008 (UTC)Reply
- I have always thought it meant "am per se and". SemperBlotto (talk) 10:40, 26 September 2013 (UTC)Reply
German meaning
Should we mention that the German word "Ampersand" (der Ampersand, m) means: sand from the Amper (a small German river)? In general, such composite nouns are not in dictionaries, and the German word is capitalised (since all nouns are). These are the two main reasons why I did not make a Bold edit; I would like to find a reference to this meaning of the word Ampersand *somewhere*. Sjcjoosten (talk) 10:11, 26 September 2013 (UTC)Reply
Where's the "second handwritten style image" come from? --Backinstadiums (talk) 17:12, 9 January 2020 (UTC)Reply