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Well more or less, they are both correct but have different registers. "Dream about" is more conversational, "dream of" is a bit more literary or poetic. Widsith12:17, 6 March 2007 (UTC)Reply
Hebrew
Latest comment: 15 years ago2 comments2 people in discussion
I changed the Hebrew translations of "dream" (verb) from "חלם" ("khalam" - dreamed, third person past tense) to "לחלום" ("lakhlom" - to dream). Liso18:27, 23 May 2008 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 15 years ago1 comment1 person in discussion
To dream, to see imaginary things while sleeping in Lithuanian is sapnuoti, while svajoti is to dream, to daydream, hope, wish. I'm fixing it. --195.22.191.412:44, 11 March 2009 (UTC)Reply
And I changed it back, for the second time, for the same reason. Like all English-to-Hebrew dictionaries, we translate English bare infinitives (such as "dream") to Hebrew third-person masculine singular past-tense forms (such as חלם(khalám)). —RuakhTALK14:47, 21 October 2009 (UTC)Reply
Amharic
Latest comment: 12 years ago1 comment1 person in discussion
In the Amharic language of Ethiopia, "እልም" (əlm / həlm, lit. (')əl(ə)m(ə)) is "dream" and "ታለመ" is along the lines of "to be dreamt of". "እልም ታለመ" is an expression meaning the speaker doesn't believe something: "psh! that's some (day)dream!". - -sche(discuss)20:35, 3 February 2012 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 11 years ago12 comments6 people in discussion
The older past form is dreamt, but the spelling drempt obviously occurs (though rarely). I suggest that we move the misleading example to the citations page, and have two standard examples of the past on the main page. How do we distinguish between deliberate use of eye-dialect and accidental mis-spelling. Is there any evidence that anyone really believes that "drempt" is a "correct" spelling? Dbfirs07:31, 26 September 2013 (UTC)Reply
This discussion is no longer live and is left here as an archive. Please do not modify this conversation, but feel free to discuss its conclusions.
"drempt" just looks like a mistake to me, and I think it would to many people. Perhaps "quite rare" is not even strong enough. Also, I question whether a passage using this strange spelling (twice) should be chosen as the first and most prominent usage example. — This unsigned comment was added by 86.130.66.152 (talk) at 11:32, 7 August 2013 (UTC).Reply
Yes, I don't think that spelling would be considered a valid option by most people. I suggest we find better examples of usage and move the strange spelling to the citations page if people want to keep it. Where in the world is it a valid spelling? It was added by Anwulf who is interested on Old and Middle English (where the spelling was used, along with many other variants). The hits in Google Books seem to be split between archaic, eye dialect and simple mis-spelling of "dreamt", but perhaps I've missed something? Dbfirs18:13, 7 August 2013 (UTC)Reply
I'd be inclined to remove "drempt" from the dream entry, and change the entry at drempt to "Eye dialect for dreamt", but I'm happy to be proved wrong if someone can come up with some well-spelt usages that are not eye dialect or archaic (Middle English?). The OED does not recognise the spelling. Dbfirs21:54, 13 August 2013 (UTC)Reply
If there is sufficient usage then I suppose it should be mentioned, but in my opinion it needs a health warning in the conjugation list (not just the usage note), where it should not be presented as on a par with "dreamed" and "dreamt". Also it should not be the dominant spelling in the examples. 86.169.185.1323:22, 13 August 2013 (UTC)Reply
Yes Google ngrams show marginal usage in the early 1890s (probably a single error). Some Wiktionary editors take such evidence as clear proof that "drepmt" is a mis-spelling (where it is not deliberately used as a pronunciation spelling). Dbfirs10:16, 15 August 2013 (UTC)Reply
Sorry, yes, I meant to correct my comment above after looking again at the ngrams, but I never got back to it. It's the proportion compared with the correct spelling "dreamt" that convinces me it's not standard. There are indeed quite a few examples, but very very few that could not be considered either eye-dialect or just errors. Which ones look convincing to you? By 1879, the (errant?) spelling in an edition of Shakespeare had been corrected to "dreamt" in Chambers's Cyclopedia of English Literature. Does anyone have access to a first folio to see whether Shakespeare used the spelling "drempt"? Dbfirs08:16, 16 August 2013 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 5 months ago1 comment1 person in discussion
We have a note about frequency. But what about style? Isn't "dreamt" quite formal in the US and hardly anyone uses it in colloquial speech anymore? I would've thought so, although my knowledge of US English is mainly based on films/television. In the UK it may be less frequent, but not necessarily formal, so you'll hear it in colloquial speech. 84.63.31.9121:13, 28 July 2024 (UTC)Reply