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Hi there. Isn't "gerund of <verb name>" the etymology of the word. Shouldn't the # symbol be followed by an actual translation into English? SemperBlotto (talk) 21:38, 13 December 2017 (UTC)Reply
- I don’t think so. The meaning rarely differs. The same for the Arabic verbal nouns. And I just wanted to make an argument for the Latin gerundia/gerundiva, and I see that you, @SemperBlotto have created bibendum while there is bibendus. 👮 Palaestrator verborum (loquier) 21:47, 13 December 2017 (UTC)Reply
- @SemperBlotto. In fact, it is the etymology of the word and the translation all in one, since the meaning (verb/gerund) rarely differs, as already mentioned by Palaestrator verborum. And this is the way it has been done in the past.
- The entry Stottern was created by user Zeitlupe in 2007, the entry Schreiben in 2010. Here, he uses the # symbol twice, first he puts the gerundium, than the English translation of a second meaning (writing, letter) is following. And it makes sense to me.
- Some more examples with an added English translation: Staunen, Stricken, Stillen.
- However, I personally consider these gerund related entries as a sort of unfinished stub, so if you miss English translations, feel free to add them.--91.61.101.181 22:59, 13 December 2017 (UTC)Reply
- If translations in those cases are to be added, I prefer using the # twice in the very same line the translation is given, i. e. structurally under the grammatical definition. For else the impression is given that the meaning is independent and not just given for convenience. Palaestrator verborum (loquier) 05:27, 14 December 2017 (UTC)Reply