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User talk:2A01:E0A:B69:5160:C888:86C9:E81E:663F. In DICTIOUS you will not only get to know all the dictionary meanings for the word
User talk:2A01:E0A:B69:5160:C888:86C9:E81E:663F, but we will also tell you about its etymology, its characteristics and you will know how to say
User talk:2A01:E0A:B69:5160:C888:86C9:E81E:663F in singular and plural. Everything you need to know about the word
User talk:2A01:E0A:B69:5160:C888:86C9:E81E:663F you have here. The definition of the word
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Enjoy your stay at Wiktionary! You are advised to log in to have your edits saved with your username. Thanks.--Mahmudmasri (talk) 22:08, 17 February 2022 (UTC)Reply
Hello, user. Would you please log in, so that your edits are saved with your username, rather than an IP address? You are simply reverting my properly sources edits from established sources, and deleting them all, like a very prestigious lexical volume, معجم اللغة العربية المعاصرة not mentioning at all that فلافل is a plural of فلفل and has the publisher with the date of publishing. The source you left on the edit summary almaany.com does not mention all of that or where and when its source was published. Additionally, it is not a primary source. --Mahmudmasri (talk) 22:23, 17 February 2022 (UTC)Reply
- @Mahmudmasri: He is, it seems likely, a veteran editor that decided to edit as IP for protest, though I do not claim it is the same. His edits were not wrong, though he did not make his reasoning transparent. None of your sources are established, they are known to be janky in the case of the American Heritage Dictionary (for which we have scolded @Djkcel many times) and Isaac Mozeson, and general dictionaries do not allow for etymological conclusions, in particular not the absence of etymologies in them. Nor it is good form to revert all his formatting corrections.
- So what do you do in the absence of etymological dictionaries of Arabic? You have to reason the etymology, and فَلَافِل (falāfil) is formally a known broken plural pattern (that virtually all four-consonant singulars form), the Persian and Sanskrit and Aramaic do not explain the vocalism and are irrelevant at that point and could only belong to فِلْفِل (filfil) where we already gave the origin Indo-Aryan → Persian → Arabic (what’s the craic with the Aramaic is that it probably only a coincidental similarity Isaac Mozeson is notorious to find, both terms postdating the usual Aramaic influence). Fay Freak (talk) 15:30, 18 February 2022 (UTC)Reply