In the text, the use of this sentence as an example of British English: “He has some money, hasn't he?” is not correct. In spoken British English "have" used to mean possess would be placed as an auxiliary only when "got" is accompanying it. Therefore the sentence should read: "He's got some money, hasn't he?" Without got it should read "He has some money, doesn't he?" The use of have as an stand alone auxiliary only occurs in British English in regional English and even then, you'd be hard pushed to find an example.
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When I stopped vomiting, I noticed that the reason "have" is pink is due to its use of {{red}}
. A few other entries ("mosquito", "mosquitos", and "grunt") also use that template. The template seems to signal inflections not in common use. I don't see any prior discussion on standardizing the display of such inflections, but there must be a better way than {{red}}
. Rod (A. Smith) 01:41, 27 May 2006 (UTC)
Could someone please give me direction on whether to use have#Interrogative auxiliary verb or hasn't one? etc., simliarly am or aren't I? etc. for the relevant tags? The last discussion in RfD was driven by EC but resulted in no recommendation. Davilla 06:36, 27 May 2006 (UTC)
There's a usage of have as a noun in (at least) New Zealand where it means approximately 'illegitimate deal' or 'raw deal' and often occurring as "a bit of a have". Colloquial and mostly just in spoken English so it turns up in transcribed quotes mostly.
"Some guys try to put that friendly persona on, try to make out that if they're smiling, everything is under control. I think it's a bit of a have really."
That sounds pretty plausible. If you nounified to 'have someone on' makes sense you'd end up with just 'have'.
The wikipedia entry of thou mentions
A few verbs have irregular thou forms: to have: thou hast, thou hadst
--Backinstadiums (talk) 20:16, 6 October 2019 (UTC)
The Cambridge Grammar of the English Language, page 148, reads
I would like to have met her and I would have liked to have met her, which are often used to convey the same meaning as I would have liked to meet her, are ambiguous: they also have interpretations in which anteriority applies to the meeting. These interpretations are pragmatically unlikely in the examples chosen, but become more salient if we change met her to finished it.
What are the two interpretations of such sentences which make them ambiguous? --Backinstadiums (talk) 10:52, 15 October 2019 (UTC)
The Cambridge Grammar of the English Language, page 152, reads
If he knew she had too many commitments, he would do something about it is a remote conditional, with the preterite in knew expressing modal remoteness, not past time: the time of knowing is present. So too (certainly in the salient interpretation) is the time of her having too many commitments: it is a matter of knowing in the present about a situation obtaining in the present. And the same applies to I wish he realised that she had too many commitments.
From a semantic point of view, therefore, the preterite carried by have must be distinguished from that carried by know or realise, which is reflected in the grammar in that irrealis were is not substitutable for was in this construction:
If he knew she was/∗were too busy, he would do something about it
I wish he realised that she was/∗were too busy.
In what dialect are those the salient interpretations? --Backinstadiums (talk) 17:40, 15 October 2019 (UTC)
Is the meaning of "What does he have on you?" added yet? --Backinstadiums (talk) 12:26, 24 November 2019 (UTC)
'st from hast as in thou'st is not added yet --Backinstadiums (talk) 22:51, 1 March 2020 (UTC)
According to LPD
The weak form /v/ is used only after a vowel (when it is often written as the contraction ’ve), or in very fast speech at the beginning of a sentence; /əv/ is not used at the beginning of a sentence. Weak forms of have, has, had are used only when the word functions as the perfective auxiliary, or is the equivalent of have got and is used with an object that is not a pronoun
--Backinstadiums (talk) 22:56, 1 March 2020 (UTC)
According to LPD
At the beginning of a sentence the usual weak form is , or in rapid speech . --Backinstadiums (talk) 11:27, 4 March 2020 (UTC)
is it a modal in what have we here? --Backinstadiums (talk) 18:20, 17 March 2020 (UTC)
To refuse to acknowledge, allow, accept, or participate in something. I won't have any of this scheme—I have a public image to upkeep! --Backinstadiums (talk) 19:57, 19 April 2021 (UTC)
What meaning is used here? --Backinstadiums (talk) 11:36, 26 April 2021 (UTC)
False analogies frequently produce irregular analogical formations in the language of children, e.g. ‘I am being have’ from a false analysis of the imperative ‘Behave yourself!’ --Backinstadiums (talk) 15:32, 24 August 2021 (UTC)
Does any one meaning match the use in this sentence? --Backinstadiums (talk) 20:01, 2 May 2022 (UTC)
The "have" as in have I got news for you, it seems distinct from the use of the auxiliary perfective have inversed following the pattern in polar questions (since this is not a question). I assume this is emphatic (or maybe just a poetic/humorous inversion of I have got news for you) Ronaldo sewie (talk) 09:45, 9 September 2024 (UTC)