Hello, you have come here looking for the meaning of the word Wiktionary:Tea room. In DICTIOUS you will not only get to know all the dictionary meanings for the word Wiktionary:Tea room, but we will also tell you about its etymology, its characteristics and you will know how to say Wiktionary:Tea room in singular and plural. Everything you need to know about the word Wiktionary:Tea room you have here. The definition of the word Wiktionary:Tea room will help you to be more precise and correct when speaking or writing your texts. Knowing the definition ofWiktionary:Tea room, as well as those of other words, enriches your vocabulary and provides you with more and better linguistic resources.
A place to ask for help on finding quotations, etymologies, or other information about particular words. The Tea room is named to accompany the Beer parlour.
For questions about the general Wiktionary policies, use the Beer parlour; for technical questions, use the Grease pit. For questions about specific content, you're in the right place.
Which exact page are you talking about? The page I see looks nothing like what you wrote.
Wiktionary (the English one) already classifies it as slang and derogatory, and says it's a pejorative sense. And it's already far from first, though maybe not last; also, words don't go in the order of how much you personally approve of them. If there's any order, it should be how often they're currently used – not how often you personally would like them to be used in the future. TooManyFingers (talk) 15:26, 1 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
The pejorative senses should be pleased at last and not the second. The meaning joyful is the second place ZZwi (talk) 03:51, 2 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Looking at the real Wiktionary page for "gay", it looks to me like it has been done very carefully, correctly, and respectfully.
We cannot pretend that the "joyful, happy" meaning is important. It was at one time, but people have mostly stopped using it. (I don't see you complaining that the real meaning of "silly" is "uncomplicated", but that is the type of thing you're doing here.)
Words are explained in the ways people are really using them. Old, unused meanings do exist, but they are less important. And moving offensive words lower on the list is useless. People don't come here to learn to talk; they come here to find out what words mean, and if we tried to hide some meanings then we'd just be making the dictionary worse. TooManyFingers (talk) 05:12, 2 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Sorry for sort of a late reply, but I just now had this thought. If a person is the target of this offensive usage of the word "gay", but they don't know what it means, we should make it easy for them to find out what was said - not more difficult. TooManyFingers (talk) 20:54, 3 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Layout of gay
Homosexual:
(of a person) Possessing sexual and/or romanticattraction towards people one perceives to be the same sexor gender as oneself.
Cliff is gay, but his twin brother is straight.
(strictly) Describing a homosexual man.
gay and lesbian people
(of an animal, by extension)Tending to partner or mate with other individuals of the same sex.
(of a romantic or sexual act or relationship) Between two or more persons perceived to be of the same sex or gender as each other.
Although the number of gay weddings has increased significantly, many gay and lesbian couples — like many straight couples — are not interested in getting married.
gay marriage
gay sex
(colloquial) Not heterosexual, or not cisgender: homosexual, bisexual, asexual, transgender, etc.
Coordinate term: LGBTQ
(of an institution or group) Intended for gay people, especially gay men.
She professes an undying love for gay bars and gay movies, and even admits to having watched gay porn.
(slang, with for) Homosexually in love with someone.
(slang, humorous, with for) Infatuated with something, aligning with homosexual stereotypes.
In accordance with stereotypes of homosexual people:
(loosely, of appearance or behavior) Being in accordance with stereotypes of gay people, especially gay men.
(loosely, of a person, especially a man)Exhibiting appearance or behavior that accords with stereotypes of gay people, especially gay men.
A pejorative:
(slang, derogatory) Effeminate or flamboyant in behavior.
(slang, derogatory) Used to express dislike: lame, uncool, stupid, burdensome, contemptible, generally bad.
Synonym: ghey
This game is gay; let’s play a different one.
(dated) Happy, joyful, and lively.
The Gay Science
(dated) Quick, fast.
(dated) Festive, bright, or colourful.
Pennsylvania Dutch include the plain folk and the gayfolk.
(obsolete) Sexually promiscuous (of any gender), (sometimes particularly) engaged in prostitution.
(of a dog's tail) Upright or curved over the back.
(Scotland, Northern England, possibly obsolete)Considerable, great, large in number, size, or degree. In this sense, also in the variant gey.
The pejorative sense should be placed at last ZZwi (talk) 03:53, 2 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
I know of two ways to order senses: by commonality, and by derivation. What I see as most common is to write the most common senses first, and the less common ones after, with equally common uses ordered in whatever way can establish a logical progression (like, if a sense came from extension of another, it can be listed after it). The way you changed the page harms users, because it misrepresents how common such usage is (very common!) Polomo47 (talk) 15:29, 2 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Note: gay
The use of the word gay to mean stupid has been harshly criticised by homosexuals, since the term is associated with homophobia. — This unsigned comment was added by ZZwi (talk • contribs) at 06:57, 4 June 2025 (UTC).Reply
Gay layout (final decision)
I decided to sort all the meanings by date. The meaning ‘happy, bright, joyful’ is attested in about 14th-15th century, the meaning ‘homosexual’ is from 1950, and the profoundly offensive meaning ‘uncool’ is from circa 2000. Like the word ‘lame’, its use to mean ‘stupid, uncool’ is sometimes seen as offensive to disabled people. The use of the word gay to mean uncool is strongly associated with homophobia and hostility, so it’s best avoided. ZZwi (talk) 02:41, 8 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
"Most users will glance only at the first few definitions in a long entry, rather than searching through all definitions to find the best match. For this reason, it is important that the most common senses of a term be placed first, even when this may be contrary to the logical or historical sequence." Dresdnhope (talk) 20:40, 2 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
coisar
Latest comment: 1 month ago2 comments2 people in discussion
There's already a good entry for the Portuguese word "coisar", a verb that acts as a placeholder for some other verb the speaker can't remember or doesn't know. I'd just like to suggest that, at least informally, a literal translation into English can make sense as a way of demonstrating the word. For example: "My keyboard quit, but Jan thinged it and now it's working again". TooManyFingers (talk) 15:00, 1 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 1 month ago2 comments2 people in discussion
Although the use of this word is not offensive when reference with animals. However to describe culture, it use’s attitudes has been changed and now generally considered offensive unless when used in historical contexts. ZZwi (talk) 07:11, 4 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
The reference at the bottom is this article, which makes it sound like a pedagogic jargon-y way of saying "landscape" (the idea being that it makes students think about the geological processes that led to the creation of the visible landscape). I thought this would be hard to cite, but it's surprisingly easy. I'll reword to make it clearer. Smurrayinchester (talk) 09:37, 6 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 1 month ago12 comments6 people in discussion
Is there a technical term for the spelling style that uses diaeresis to indicate that consecutive vowels should be pronounced separately, where standard forms would use a hyphen (coöperate instead of co-operate, for instance)? While creating reëat, I thought it would be helpful if we had a category and a sense line template for these forms, but I don't know what we'd call it. I've heard it called the "New Yorker style", since that magazine is the best-known user, but that's not really a term we can use here. Smurrayinchester (talk) 07:34, 6 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Although the homophony is unfortunate, Smurrayinchester's suggested wording is not wrong; but another option, which would address DCDuring's concern, would be "Diacritic spelling of..."). Quercus solaris (talk) 21:51, 6 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
That would be a much broader category, encompassing e.g. café and animé. I'm interested in the narrower case of just collecting terms created under the spelling convention that marks diaeresis, so they're all categorised together – much as we have Category:Oxford spellings for that chiefly-academic variant of British English that uses the -ize suffix for words like colourize. Smurrayinchester (talk) 09:29, 7 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Quite true. That's more than enough reason to use the more precise word (i.e., the hyponymous adjective). I support it. In the end, natural language speakers can't run or hide from homophony and near-homophony, but that's OK; we humans are contextuality lovers anyway. Quite true that "diaeretic spelling of" would naturally/logically be a subcat of "diacritic spelling of". Quercus solaris (talk) 17:18, 7 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Yeah, if we're going to have a specific template/category for these, "diaeretic" seems like an OK word to use. Regarding whether to use "spelling of..." or "form of...": the theoretical distinction (which I have periodically proposed we should either revise our templates to explicitly mention, or else give up on) is that if it's pronounced the same, it's a "spelling of..." and if it's pronounced differently, it's a "form of...". So I think these would be "spelling of"...? - -sche(discuss)18:00, 7 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
I note that our main entry is at dieretic though Google NGrams shows diaeretic more common after 1960 and much more common since 1990.
Alternative conjugation of latin verb resilio in the active perfect tense
Latest comment: 1 month ago2 comments2 people in discussion
I'm working on a latin source that uses the verb form "resilivit". After some research, I found that this is a valid alternative to "resiluī". See the complete conjugation in the active perfect tense below. I believe this alternative should be included in the wiktionary entry for the latin word resilio alongside the more common conjugation as resiluī, etc. I don't know how to do this, as currently the article is using a template to render the conjugation.
which will add forms for every perfective active tenses on the root resilīv-.
If you otherwise only want to add perfect active indicative forms, you will need to do it manually and for both forms as doing so overwrites templated ones. Now is how to do it:
{{la-conj|4.pass-impers|resiliō|resilu|result|1s_perf_actv_indc=resiluī//resilīvī|2s_perf_actv_indc=...}} and so on...
PS. In "Georges: Ausführliches lateinisch-deutsches Handwörterbuch" (a Latin-German dictionary) it is noted: "Perf. gew. resiluit (jetzt auch Claud. Quadrig. ann. 6. fr. 56 bei Prisc. 10, 51); zuw. resilivit, wie Sen. contr. 1, 3, 4“ See http://www.zeno.org/Georges-1913/A/resilio
Thanks. This is what I used. I don't understand why one would use // to separate forms instead of / so that's what I used.
I believe so. I recommend these senses merge under the current 5.1 sense (to become 4.1, if done). Although it can specifically refer to the end of a whip that generates the sound, it seems to me that it is an instantiation of the current 5. sense (person or thing that cracks). TranqyPoo (talk) 03:08, 15 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
I find it very hard to readily grasp the different definitions. They could stand re-ordering and possibly sense-subsense structure. One structure would group the definitions by whether the reference was a thing that cracked intransitively (eg, the baked good, firecracker, Christmas cracker) or was a thing that cracked something else (eg, catalytic cracker). I don't think there is necessarily a single useful supersense, especially for the intransitive definitions. Some senses that don't directly fit that binary categorization might be located by connecting them with other definitions from which the sense developed. Also, MWOnline usually has useful sense-subsense structure, as does AHD. DCDuring (talk) 13:50, 15 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
@BillMichaelTheScienceMichael, TranqyPoo: After going through the senses, most of them are derivatives of either the the "noise-making" crack or of the "breaking" crack. I have re-ordered the senses. The transitive sense in "crack a whip" then doesn't fit the transitive-intransitive division I suggested. I don't get how some of the senses relate to either of these groups, eg, "pintail duck" and the derogatory sense "poor (or racist) US Southerner. DCDuring (talk) 18:01, 15 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 1 month ago1 comment1 person in discussion
I've already asked this before but, in Pannonian Rusyn, there exist the imperative forms гибай(hibaj) and гибайце(hibajce, “come here”). These would theoretically come from the verb *гибац(*hibac), but the verb itself is completely obsolete, unattested even, other than the imperative forms which are in Rusyn dictionaries. (Even in the Old Slovak dictionary, the imperative forms are listed as separate entries to the actual verb itself.) Should I still classify their parts of speech as "verb form"? Or should I just refer to them as interjections or particles? Insaneguy1083 (talk) 08:49, 7 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
geoid definition
Latest comment: 1 month ago1 comment1 person in discussion
The definition for 'geiod' "at zero elevation" is in direct contradiction to the rest of the definition and the quotations. The whole point of the geiod is that it goes up and down to maintain a given gravitational potential? 58.107.209.4412:52, 7 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 15 days ago2 comments2 people in discussion
This term is archaic, meaning A spore borne at the extremity of the cells of fructification in fungi., per Webster 1913. These things exist, but aren't called acrospores today. Trying to find the term... sporangium probably not, conidium perhaps... any takers? Lfellet (talk) 19:16, 7 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
An acrospore is just a spore formed at the end of a pedicel, sterigma, or filament. I don't think the term is necessarily obsolete, it's just not very useful or necessary. I don't think there is a synonym or modern equivalent AFAICT. Acrospores are usually asexual spores (conidia), but not all conidia are acrospores. Nosferattus (talk) 19:29, 13 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Yeah, I have seen this used with various other people; offhand I can find "nice try, Ramone" (used the same way, to imply Ramone is behind a certain post) and "nice try, Elon" (also often used in a somewhat more general way, to imply Elon tried to do something sneaky/shady, not necessary just post). RFD as extralexical? - -sche(discuss)19:51, 7 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Request for discussion on new entry: "perpetuing" (creative spiritual term)
Latest comment: 1 month ago5 comments3 people in discussion
Hello Wiktionary community,
I am seeking input and consensus regarding a new term I recently created and added to Wiktionary: perpetuing. This word is a coined spiritual term derived from perpetual + -ing, describing a state of continual communion with God beyond ordinary meanings.
Background
The term arose from spiritual revelation and is currently used in teaching, writing, and worship contexts.
It has been officially released in a song titled Perpetuing: Living Beyond The Fray by the artist Blessing Others, publicly available on YouTube Music since June 2025.
I am also including the term and its meaning in an upcoming published book of Prayer, Praise, & Worship Songs on Amazon, expected within days.
I understand Wiktionary’s guideline WT:CFI requires durable, archived sources, and I am working to provide these through the book publication and additional third-party references.
I would appreciate the community’s thoughts on the entry’s suitability, any suggestions for improvement, or guidance on how best to document and validate this new term for Wiktionary inclusion.
Thank you for this valuable feedback and clarity. We will continue forward with the public use of the word "perpetuing" as the extension of "perpetual" with an "ing" ending used for positive lifestyle and an elevated state of being and proceed once appropriate attestations have been obtained. Have a great week ahead! BlessingOthers (talk) 22:55, 8 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Thank you for providing these document reference points. This information is very helpful and greatly appreciated.
It seems that the English translation of "perpetuing" within these documents is not the widely accepted translation from Spanish and Portuguese. However, I believe that as our word gains more public usage in English, coupled with our specific definition, it will become less confusing over time.
Our definition of "perpetuing" is indeed rooted in the word "perpetual," expanding into a positive state of being that embodies a continual flow and lifestyle, living beyond the fray.
While "perpetuando" is a term in Spanish and Portuguese that translates to "perpetuating" in English, I believe "perpetuing" can develop a unique meaning through widespread usage that aligns with our definition.
Additionally, "perpetuar" is the Spanish and Portuguese verb that translates to "perpetuate" in English, which does not convey the same sense of continual flow that we aim to express with "perpetuing."
Latest comment: 1 month ago2 comments2 people in discussion
Although the use of this word is not completely accepted, in some cases, it may be considered to be profoundly offensive if used incorrectly in slang. However, the terms spastic colon and spastic paralysis is not offensive because the uses have no relation to people. Like the term retard, the meaning foolish person is considered offensive (not profoundly) because of the derivation of the meaning ‘person with learning difficulties’. Only use the word spastic in relation to muscles or medicine. Only use the word retard to mean delay or slow down but not used to describe people. ZZwi (talk) 09:31, 8 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
According to the article in the Latin Wikipedia, the term zerus has been used in recent Latin books. No source is given for this statement, but it strongly suggests that zerum is older. We are not adverse to including newly coined Latin terms, such as aeriportus and televisio, but they need to satisfy our usual criteria for inclusion. It is not clear that zerus does meet them. ‑‑Lambiam19:53, 8 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 1 month ago3 comments3 people in discussion
I think this entry is either incorrect or incomplete.
1.) I think it is not so much used to express whether something has worked, but more whether the person has put effort into doing the thing.
2.) Usually if something has worked, what we usually say is "good job", not "nice try". (I'm having a hard time imagining a situation where somebody would ever say "nice try". The very use of the word "try" strongly implies a lack of success.) So I think the first part of the definition is just wrong.
3.) The entry is missing the non-sarcastic use of the phrase "nice try" when something does not work. Like suppose the kids are playing basketball and one of them shoots the ball and misses. The coach might say "nice try" but clearly he isn't being sarcastic. 2601:49:8400:392:AC9F:2CB0:442A:7C5A11:19, 8 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 1 month ago2 comments2 people in discussion
I think the English section for tait should be deleted. There's no citation, no etymology, and no quotation. A honey possum? Banaticus (talk) 00:51, 9 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
@Banaticus: It's real, but hard to find outside of reference works. See the Wikipedia article on the Honey possum, which mentions the name and says it comes from some Aboriginal language. It's also mentioned here, here and here, and a borderline use here. Of course, those aren't enough for our Criteria for inclusion in themselves, but you would have to go through Requests for verification/English to get it deleted, and it's entirely possible that there would be enough of the right kinds of usage in the right kinds of places to save the entry once people look for it. Chuck Entz (talk) 02:32, 9 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 1 month ago1 comment1 person in discussion
Our usex says many is not capable of being employed alone as a term (but that man is). Is this correct? Maybe it is thinking of determiner many needing to qualify something, but pronoun many doesn't need to... is there a more clearly non-categorematic word we could be using instead? The? - -sche(discuss)02:10, 9 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 1 month ago1 comment1 person in discussion
In the sense "-ass", this was moved in February, based I guess on the argument that suffixes should be written with a hyphen rather than a space. I think in practice, it's normally spelled with a space rather than a hyphen, and so I'd prefer to return the suffix to ahh and just have -ahh as an alternative form. Or at minimum, ahh should be listed as an "alternative" form of -ahh, since I'm not sure the 'See also' is prominent enough to redirect people effectively. For example, recently ahh was edited to add Diddy ahh blud as a "Derived term", which I expect is really from the "ass" suffix. Urszag (talk) 15:38, 9 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
and other interesting 漢字 not yet in Wiktionary nor Unicode.
Latest comment: 1 month ago7 comments3 people in discussion
So this character "" (pronounced as huáng, ㄏㄨㄤˊ in Mandarin) is really fascinating.
It's a 漢字 (Chinese Character) that contains a whopping 172 strokes and is currently regarded by many as the most complicated character in existence.
's meaning and etymology are unknown. Some believe it to be an ancient talisman, others believe it to be a modern internet invention.
Regardless, I think is a really good candidate for a wiktionary article because it has become super famous. (there are literally thousands of videos on Chinese social media featuring it. Just search "huáng字 172画" or similar & you'll get tons of content about .
There are a couple challenges that need community consensus before article creation would be possible.
First, is not yet in Unicode. Non Unicode characters provide a real challenge for languages like Chinese and Japanese because many local, shorthand, name characters or other variants may be used without a good way to represent them in computers.
Regardless, there are many Chinese Characters not in unicode that have wiktionary articles. The standard procedure is to use an ideographic description sequence (IDS) as a way to use subcomponents to "spell out" the Character.
The are a few problems with this system however. It is cumbersome, and furthermore, these articles are often targets for deletion by users unaware of wiktionary consensus. In the case of a complicated 漢字 like , the ideographic description sequence is ⿺辶⿳⿳雨⿲田田田⿲土土⿲土土土⿲⿱回云⿹⿱⿹飞土⿹飞土⿰⿸⿺升土土⿵鳳龍⿱回云⿲山⿱⿲風鹿風⿴土⿰鹿鹿山 (Very long lol), and I have no doubt that it may cause confusion for some users. (therefore it may warrant a special title?)
I think that's a really good solution & very practical. I'll go ahead and & make the article. If at some point someone wants to change the title then that's fine. But at least we'll have a general consensus to fall back on.
@Sgconlaw: It's pretty strongly attestable, I was a little surprised it didn't have an article tbh. It's a very well known character in China. Searching "huáng字 172画" or "世界上最難的漢字" or other searches yields thousands of pieces of content featuring . This constitutes attestation by widespread use in my opinion.
@HanziKanji: can you provide links to at least three quotations? Note that these have to be actual uses and not mentions: see “w:Use–mention distinction”. Quotations which merely describe the character and its meaning rather than using it in an actual sentence are insufficient. I suspect that a source which talks about “世界上最難的漢字” (“the world’s most complex hanzi”) would not be an actual use. — Sgconlaw (talk) 23:52, 10 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
@Sgconlaw You bring up a great point. If a 漢字 is used, but it is used for its compositional novelty rather than for its inherent meaning, does it exist? Lol it's an interesting philisophical question. I suspect, you are correct that 's usages may all be "hey look at this thing" (mentioning it). That said, there are indeed plenty of 漢字 with wiktionary articles which may even lack pronunciation, much less any definition or known use. So in some senses, may have precedent. Regardless, I'll do some digging for you, I'm a quite busy with work for now, I may have to put this on the back burner for a few days. I'll see what I can do
Latest comment: 1 month ago3 comments2 people in discussion
In English, I see mugolio used to mean a syrup made from sugar and pine cones. In Italian, our entry currently defines it as an oil (which does fit the etymology better). So does mugolio refer to different substances in English vs Italian, or are the English and Italian definitions both trying to describe the same substance? Pinging a few Italian speakers, @Catonif, GianWiki, to check that mugolio refers to an oil in Italian: can it also refer to a (sugar+pinecone) syrup in Italian? (Can it also refer to a pine oil in English?) - -sche(discuss)15:15, 11 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
I had never heard this word before. I only know mugolìo, the sound. Mugòlio seems to be what it says at face value, i.e. "olio di mugo". The Zingarelli dictionary says it's an essential oil extracted from the fresh leaves of mountain pine, so it appears to be an oil. If you google it, though, you find people using mugòlio to refer to a syrup made with mugo's pinecones and sugar. I guess the proper meaning of the word is the essential oil, then people, as it often happens, went on using the word to indicate what would otherwise simply be "sciroppo di pigna di mugo". I see why one would want to use 'mugòlio' instead, being just one word. I'm not against giving both meaning. — Sartma【𒁾𒁉 ● 𒊭 𒌑𒊑𒀉𒁲】21:37, 15 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
I can feel the effect that prompted this question, which is that the term is almost always plural. But as for "always plural" versus "almost always plural", really the latter, because I have heard someone say "God, what a boondock" in reference to one particular town. I'm going to tweak the label. Quercus solaris (talk) 01:33, 12 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Please help me find an obsolete meaning of the word "stage"
Latest comment: 1 month ago5 comments3 people in discussion
I found this passage in a book published in the United States in 1945: "In Albany , class lines were sharp. Democracy was so little known that a veteran of the Revolution might be refused a seat on the Albany-Troy stage because he was shabbily dressed." Does the word "stage" mean a legislative body here? Shushimnotrealstooge (talk) 20:22, 11 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
From Albany to Troy is about 7 miles, which took two hours by stage (according to The Encyclopedia of New York Sate)). The rail line between Albany and Troy was built ~1841. Before 1804 the trip included a ferry ride across the Hudson. The early Dutch land-owning settlers long held on to their superior status (ancestors of 3 US presidents). DCDuring (talk) 13:24, 12 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
One would think, but no, it's correct as given, because the origin of the term in typesetting comes from the days of metal type (both letterpress and hot metal composition), when strips of lead (Pb) were the spacers that inserted more space between the lines of type. Quercus solaris (talk) 04:24, 12 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Seems to be just some retro-futuristic DIY computer inspired by the cyberpunk decks, without the brain-interface. Jberkel14:18, 12 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Recently (poorly formatted) adjective sections were added to both of these entries, defined respectively as first and second. It's true that the letters are used as numerals, so I wouldn't be surprised if the spelled-out names of the letters were used the same way, but would that really be adjectival use? One could just as easily argue for attributive usage of the nouns. The nouns are uninflected, so I suspect that inflectional morphology won't be there to help, either. I'm not really sure how to fix these. Chuck Entz (talk) 15:05, 12 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
I can think of four of these off my head in usage, but I do not know their origins historically, other than that they are not number values from ancient Greek. One is star order names, such as alpha Centauri, beta Centauri, etc. which use the received alphabetical order, and also in climbing the term "beta" is used for secondhand (technique) information, though that might be from Betamax (as in quality of). The Magic the Gathering card game used "alpha" and "beta" as release order of original card sets and of course there is rank of genotypes in Brave New World that uses this. It's like saying "A league" and "B league." 172.110.168.24319:33, 23 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Thanks. More generally I'm not sure it's a good idea to have these list templates auto-categorize like this. I revamped them a few months ago and there is a |holonym= param that specifies the holonym (like "week"), and the code tries to exclude such terms from the categories, but this system is fragile and it might be better just to require that all terms be categorized separately using {{C}}. Note that I have already removed auto-categorization from all geographic lists, as the categorization is handled by {{place}}. Benwing2 (talk) 20:59, 12 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
One can find both San Andreas Faults (very few instances) and San Andreas faults (very many instances). Only the first group barely support the idea of a plural proper noun. Geologists often refer to the San Andreas fault system, implying multiple related faults (common noun NP). It is hard to find attestation for a San Andreas fault (apart from attributive use). I conclude that the proper orthography is San Andreas Fault, which should be the main entry, not an alt form. I don't think that the "plural forms" should exist at all as any proper noun can be nonce-pluralized. I doubt that San Andreas fault should be an alternative form, rather than a hard redirect to San Andreas Fault. IMHO, the only reason it should exist even as a hard redirect is to protect our users' delicate sensibilities from the shock of confronting the failed-search page. DCDuring (talk) 14:40, 13 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Dunno becuz I'm remedial in minerals (wish I knew the average mineral specimen from a hole in the ground), but I'm going to cross-post the see-also, as that's a logical and desirable minimum response. (I don't doubt that they're related and synonymous , but placing a see-also link is duly agnostic until someone who knows with certainty improves upon it.) Quercus solaris (talk) 22:48, 15 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
I create-protected the page itself after it was deleted, but this person is very persistent in addition to being shameless about self-promotion. I've now create-protected the Citations and Talk pages (Surjection already took care of the deletion). Chuck Entz (talk) 03:24, 16 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 1 month ago4 comments3 people in discussion
I have never heard this phrase before to mean "bladed weapon". It is not in the OED either. Has anyone here heard the phrase? If so, is it more likely to be found in some geographical areas or some time periods of the English language?
I appreciate the urge, but what's there just states the facts (the actual meanings); one could remove the label itself so that a user needn't encounter any Big Word at all (not even when linked to glossary help), but this opens up the counterobjection that then some other people would ask why or how one word means three things, and why those are not presented as three senses instead of one. The label helps someone to understand why that (simpler presentation) is, if they can be bothered to click it. If they can't, who can help them to learn anything anyway? Adding usexs can show (instead of tell) how OHC can mean a cam, a valvetrain, an engine, or a car. I will add usexes. Quercus solaris (talk) 18:07, 16 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Someone has now added a qualifier, but I'm going to go a step further and move these from "alternative forms" to "derived terms", because they don't have the same meaning, which I think is (in general) a necessary requirement of being an "alternative form". Allahu akbar could be defined in a non-gloss way as ~"a thing Muslims say, praising or thanking God"; Allah snackbar can't, it is ~"a thing certain non-Muslims say to mock Muslims". I am open to arguments to the contrary if other people think these do count as "alternative forms" instead of "derived terms" or something else. - -sche(discuss)20:14, 16 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 1 month ago1 comment1 person in discussion
There is a Wiktionary entry for this. What interests me is that a certain US politician (with a t, r, u, m and p in his name) likes the phrase "stone cold loser". Ngrams viewer shows no hits for this in the British English corpus and none in the American English corpus - or the number of hits is too low to plot in both cases - but if you choose the English corpus, there are some hits. The phrase is almost entirely unattested in Ngrams, apart from a flurry of hits in 1982 and a flurry of hits in 2019 (possibly comments made by the president in his first term about the mayor of London). I don't actually recall hearing this phrase ever in British English. I would be familiar with "total loser". Is this a purely US term? Also, I think stone-cold would be hyphenated referring to a cup of tea being cold, but possibly not in "stone cold loser", right?
The adjective stone-cold is popular in colloquial AmE and in American culture. When you read at Wikipedia about the circus character called Stone Cold Steve Austin and the actor who plays him, you read that "in the WWF, Austin was repackaged as a short-tempered, brash and brazenanti-establishmentantihero named "Stone Cold" Steve Austin," and perhaps that whole sentence tells you a lot about the kinds of people who especially love to (over)use the adjective stone-cold, lol. But in fairness even the rest of us use it too, on occasion. Quercus solaris (talk) 14:10, 17 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
rox
Latest comment: 1 month ago2 comments2 people in discussion
Alternative spelling of rocks (“in sense of excelling, being great”)
Is that usage of quotation marks incorrect? Is a word missing? Should the page say:
Alternative spelling of rocks (in the sense of “excelling, being great”)?
i tried to fix it, but couldn't figure out how the quotation marks got there at all. Does that incorrect usage of quotation marks happen every time someone uses the Template:alternative spelling of?
{{alternative spelling of|en|rocks|rocks|in sense of excelling, being great}}
displays
Alternative spelling of rocks(“in sense of excelling, being great”)
Yes, the template adds the quotation marks, which is how it should be when used as intended. Just leave out ‘in (the) sense of ’, which is already implied, and also turn the gloss into an active verb form to get ‘Alternative spelling of rocks(“excels, is great”)’. ‑‑Lambiam08:17, 19 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 1 month ago2 comments2 people in discussion
The definitions here are very grandiloquent, often to such an extent as to be indecipherable. Also, as someone mentions on the talk page, it is unclear which definition refers to the sin of pride. 90.167.177.17215:28, 17 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
I've revised the first two senses so that "the quality or state of being proud" is the first sense and then "reasonable self-esteem" and "haughtiness" are distinct subsenses; they had been muddled together. More work may be needed. Some dictionaries, such as Merriam-Webster, also consider pride in oneself ("he felt pride as he held the trophy") and pride in others ("his family felt pride as they watched him hold the trophy") different senses. - -sche(discuss)16:11, 17 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Green's slang dictionary has a number of senses of done that we don't have, with citations/examples. You can get at it via “done”, in OneLook Dictionary Search.. One sense is "punished". DCDuring (talk) 23:31, 18 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
I feel like incertae sedis should be adjective and not a noun.
Latest comment: 1 month ago4 comments4 people in discussion
A common usage that makes more sense of Latin meaning would be "incertae sedisin family/order/class/phylum X" rather than what we have as usage example. Even when used without such an explicit qualifying phrase, it is usually clear what higher taxon is meant.
'Adjective' would be more consistent with, for example, the PoS of Translingual specific epithets (eg, eponyms, host organisms), that have the form of Latin genitives. DCDuring (talk) 11:19, 19 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
I would say that etiologia simply represents an obsolete spelling of eziologia, as with all the Latin -ti- sequences which evolved into -/t͡sj/- sequences. GianWiki (talk) 17:57, 20 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Looks like it, but that's not the case. The ti spelling was most common until the 1940s. It's an attempt to be closer to the Greek etymon's pronunciation which we recently ditched. Catonif (talk) 20:22, 20 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 1 month ago4 comments3 people in discussion
Is this really phonemically distinct from /ˈfluːɪd/? I know some systems treat /uː/ as /ɪw/ or something similar, but it's unclear what /ˈflɪu̯ɪd/ is supposed to represent and I don't think it matches the usual phonemic transciptions we use. Horse Battery (talk) 00:51, 21 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
is a dialectal variant of /juː/, not /uː/, for example in new york
most british dictionaries give /uː/ after /l/, even when historically it was /juː/, as in lewd, but in conservative dialects outside rp you'll still find /juː/
you'll need an older dictionary to determine whether /ˈfljuːɪd/ is an established pronunciation, but i suspect that it is kwami (talk) 06:33, 21 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
There are accents, including I think conservative varieties Welsh English, where the "ew" vowel is pronounced /ɪu̯/ even in contexts where most accents (including RP) have merged it with /uː/. Such accents distinguish chews/t͡ʃɪu̯z/ from choose/t͡ʃuːz/, which are homophones in most accents of English (even the most stodgy, old-fashioned RP). Such accents would then also have /ˈflɪu̯ɪd/ and /flɪu̯t/ for fluid and flute. See w:Phonological history of English consonant clusters § Yod-dropping. —Mahāgaja · talk09:06, 21 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 1 month ago7 comments4 people in discussion
i grew up pronouncing this as 'lin', however i just saw a math video where it was pronounced 'lon', which i don't think i've ever heard before.
i've looked it up in multiple dicts, and none give a pronunciation.
i'm curious now how widespread my pronunciation is, and how many others may be out there. do we have sources for pronunciation? kwami (talk) 06:20, 21 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
I have never heard any pronunciation besides "L-N," but wouldn't be surprised if there were many idiosyncratic local pronunciations of these mathematical abbreviations. Hftf (talk) 15:22, 21 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
There is a video on YouTube by Professor Hafner, a prof at Rice University, who's running a channel offering free freshman physics courses, where he even went into some drama about this, and tried to explain. Basically he said the same as @Sgconlaw, initially high school math teacher thing, yet he was adamant ever since about sticking to it himself. So it's probably not as "correct" as just folksy, but continues to haunt people, including actual physicists. His channel has literally hundreds of videos, don't ask me which it is, guess I only remember because it's the first time I heard about it myself. As for regionality: can't say whether Hafner is a Houston or Texas native. -2001:9E8:6AA7:C800:A2BF:28C0:9A01:A41D14:21, 24 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
on youtube, besides -- or in dialects with the pin-pen merger, -- i'm finding , , and once in what sounds like a northern UK accent. i wonder if the ~ variation is a US ~ UK thing. kwami (talk) 19:06, 24 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Reading nook
Latest comment: 1 month ago2 comments2 people in discussion
Hi!
I just added an entry for reading nook. However, it's my first entry written from ground up - please, can somebody look at this and tell me what I did wrong? I suspect I could do wrong a thing or two, but I dunno which ones? ;-)
I think that's a very cute and nice entry. You may only be at risk of the "SoP" (sum of parts: that is: a type of nook, used for reading, in the same way that we might not have an entry for, say, a "baseball basement"). Can't be fcked with it really. Best of luck lol. 2A00:23C5:FE1C:3701:1D1B:AB3B:282E:BA1809:09, 22 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 1 month ago1 comment1 person in discussion
Where or by whom is this pronounced IPA(key): /-paʊ/? It's closer to the Chinese pronunciation, but my understanding based on prior discussions was that at least in the West, English exclusively uses spelling pronunciations (or, pronunciations that re-map aspiration distinctions to voicing) in which pinyin b is pronounced /b/. - -sche(discuss)19:19, 22 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
How do you prove that a word is obsolete in the eyes of the Wiktionary?
Latest comment: 1 month ago7 comments4 people in discussion
I found a passage in a book published in 1945 that explicitly calls a word obsolete:
When Horace Greeley failed to join in the clamor, pointing out that the farmers had grievances, his own party turned on him. His espousal of Free Soil and Anti-Rentism made him guilty, in the opinion of the Whig New York Express, of "Fourierism, agrarianism and infidelity"—meaning denial of God.Shushimnotrealstooge (talk) 02:58, 23 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
You're misreading it. The word infidelity has a number of senses, so it would be natural to gloss it to be clear which sense was meant. That's not to say that the sense in question isn't obsolete- just that the quote you gave doesn't explicitly say so. Determining whether a term is obsolete is tricky: it can be obsolete in some regions or parts of society, but alive and well in others. This is especially true of closed groups with their own in-vocabulary, such as some religions or professions. Think about all the times you've seen or heard someone using a term you never knew existed- for you, it might as well be obsolete, but for the people using it, it's definitely not. Chuck Entz (talk) 03:33, 23 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Thank you for clarifying. On the other hand, can we show that any contemporary dialects use this word in this way? The third meaning has a quote from the seventeenth century, not the twentieth or twenty-first. Shushimnotrealstooge (talk) 12:25, 23 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
It would be nice if you could get the original citation from the New York Express from, say, Google News or Hathitrust. That would have a relevant date. It would help also to have a citation that unambiguously supports the plausible "denial of God" meaning, which this one does not quite do. It is only by noting facts such as that Greeley was a universalist and that he had questioned the appropriateness of having a chaplain for the US House of Representatives that one can infer that the infidelity might well be to God not his wife. DCDuring (talk) 16:58, 23 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
By the end of the 19th century, the term in the sense of lack of an approved religious belief is still easily found in published books. After that, it is hard to find. Unfortunately, the "Custom range..." time-range feature of GBS has stopped working, making an intensive time-focused search impractical.
The term is used in the title of the book The foundation of God: or, The Bible versus infidelity. While it has no publication date; WorldCat dates it as 19—, and archiv.org has 1948. A listing on Biblio.co.nz has "No date, about 1950 or so." Based solely on the typography, I'd say this is post-WWII. It may have been a last gasp. ‑‑Lambiam15:26, 24 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Several of the late 19th-century uses I found were in what seemed to be original publications, but I ave not thoroughly investigated this. Interestingly, The foundation of God: or, The Bible versus infidelity contains this sentence:
“Infidelity is dead and damned,” we are told, and these men and women look upon such a title “The Foundation of God,” or the “Bible Versus Infidelity” as not alone being obsolete, but a title that is so out of harmony with modern thought that it is well nigh antediluvian!
I've never heard this. It sounded to me like jargon used by real estate agents/realtors, so I added a "real estate" label. But the two quotations are from Toronto. Is it a Canadian usage? This, that and the other (talk) 07:06, 23 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
I don't understand what you're arguing. I added this entry when I encountered it in normal English text and saw our dictionary was missing it. Hftf (talk) 23:26, 23 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
It was a variant spelling in 1642, when the citation quoted at miosis#Etymology_2 was written (English spelling standardization was young and incipient back then), but today it would be viewed as a homophone error in formal writing, as judged by most teachers or editors, who would uphold the spelling difference reserving the (now conventional) spellings to the respective homophones, which I've no doubt is why it was entered at miosis#Etymology_2 as "doublet of meiosis" at the etymology rather than "alternative spelling of meiosis" at the def line. From this viewpoint it is a formerly alternative spelling of meiosis, not a currently accepted one. Meanwhile, though, myosis is today still held to be an accepted spelling variant of miosis (but not of meiosis, though). These conventions are inherently arbitrary, but then so is lead (Pb) versus led (pp), which is likewise routinely enforced today albeit perhaps not so much in the 17th century. Quercus solaris (talk) 05:02, 25 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 1 month ago5 comments4 people in discussion
As the Wikipedia article on Jack Teixeira, which claims without evidence that his name is pronounced (/teɪˈʃɛərə/ tay-SHAIR-ə) is edit-protected, presumably so that a coterie of editors in favour of war in the Ukraine can control the context, I looked at Wiktionary, where the pronunciation in Portugal (similar to what is stated in Wikipedia) is given, but no attempt at showing the US pronunciation was given until I added it. I don't think it is necessarily the case that everyone of Portuguese descent with this surname in the US will have the same pronunciation, as some people adapt to American English more than others. But at https://abcnews.go.com/US/pentagon-leaker-jack-teixeira-speaks-prison-1st-time/story?id=122050062 there is a news report on his interview with ABC News from behind prison bars. The broadcaster pronounces his name with a /ks/, and the clip also shows at 00:31 that Teixeira himself was asked by the prison phone system to state his name - and it is /'tɛksɛərə/, with the accent on the 1st syllable by the way. Amazing how Wikipedia is controlled by people who simply don't know.... I have inserted the correct pronunciation on Wiktionary, but don't know how to do the formatting correctly. If anyone can correct, please do.
OK, thank you for changing that. But you have to be extremely blinkered to say "this isn't a conspiracy - articles like this attract a lot of trolls". The thing is, there is often a divergence of views on current affairs. That is in fact how it should be. The people you regard as trolls are people you disagree with. Wiktionary is controlled by people who can charitably be described as left liberals, insisting on their narrative on everything. This is not exactly an encyclopaedia anyone can edit. And neither is it the case that only extreme views are banned. The views enforced on that site are themselves fairly extreme - of the DEI, woke, transgenderist variety. 2A00:23C7:1D84:FE01:F65:D78F:9DE3:1B8219:35, 24 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Quite a few speakers referring to quite a few different Teixeiras (occasionally themselves) say the name at Youglish; I've added all the pronunciations that seemed common (or at least, not uncommon). - -sche(discuss)20:20, 24 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
I've updated the etymology, which incorrectly defined passive as a verb rather than as an adjective. @Lambiam is correct; among the meanings of passive mentioned in the OED (and not yet in our entry) are the following: "which is, or is capable of being, acted on; (obsolete) which suffers, or may suffer, pain, death, etc." These no doubt derive directly from the Latin word passivus. Thus, something which is impassive is incapable of being acted on or incapable of suffering, so to speak. — Sgconlaw (talk) 20:24, 25 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 1 month ago1 comment1 person in discussion
is this really jukujikun? for something to be labeled as jukujikun, I'd expect it to at least make some sort of sense — and this doesn't. the characters 甲 'shell, no. 1' and 斐 'elegant' don't feel like they're chosen for their meaning here — at least not at first, maybe 'no. 1' and 'elegant' does make some sense as 'worth (to do something)'.
I think this isn't jukujikun though, but ateji. 甲 is こう now, but it used to be かう. 斐 is ひ, and the old pronunciation of 甲斐 was かひ. (this feels similar to 由比ヶ浜, which is ゆいがはま, or 難波, read なにわ.) mati ★ (talk · contribs) 22:49, 24 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 1 month ago1 comment1 person in discussion
On the page for Odisha, the IPA transcription for the Indic pronunciation is written as /oː.ɖɪˈʃaː/. However, can we verify this? Neither Hindi nor Odia (the languages whence the English word Odisha comes) have stress on the final syllable or a retroflex voiced plosive for their respective terms of Odisha. Wouldn’t it be something closer to /oː.ɽɪ.ʃaː/, or /oɽisa/ (as found on ଓଡ଼ିଶା)? Sumxr (talk) 03:12, 25 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
What is boxazin?
Latest comment: 19 days ago3 comments3 people in discussion
A few years ago, I got in a conversation with a drunk on the street. The fentanyl crisis came up, to which they replied, "Yeah, but if you think fentanyl is bad, boxazin is worse", but I haven't found anything about it on Wikipedia, search engines, or otherwise. Of course, I must have heard or spelled it wrong, but in any case, if anyone can help me, you can. Shushimnotrealstooge (talk) 12:44, 25 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Maybe they were saying that Boxazin (a brand of aspirin) is worse in the sense that it doesn't relieve their pain, whereas fentanyl does. DCDuring (talk) 13:21, 9 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Would anyone help me write an entry for "liberal douche"?
Latest comment: 1 month ago6 comments4 people in discussion
The latest edition of Green's Dictionary of Slang came out in 2010. While it has entries for "douche" and "douchebag", it doesn't have an entry for "liberal douche" as distinct from an apolitical, insufferable person. Shushimnotrealstooge (talk) 15:51, 25 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
The existence of that meme does not imply that the meaning of "liberal douche" isn't deducible from the meanings of "liberal" and "douche". And I can find plenty of examples online of people calling someone "conservative douche" or "Democratic douche". —Mahāgaja · talk17:07, 25 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 11 days ago95 comments12 people in discussion
I reverted @JMGN's edit on as because the user's sentence example was ungrammatical. The sentence example was "I'm working. But at the same time as I work, I'm exercising too," and the definition was "at the same time that, during the same time when: while." Substituting "at the same time as" with just while or as alone sounds better; substituting the word as in that sentence with its entered definition makes obvious the sentence's ungrammaticality: "I'm working. But at the same time I work, I'm exercising too." I understand substitution tests don't always work, but I think it's a good rule of thumb. When I reverted the user's edit, I gave a reason; when they reverted mine, they did not.
They also made an ungrammatical sentence example on the same page before, when they entered "I know you don't like it, as I don't either" (we talked about this on my talk page and on the talk page of as). As and either don't sound so well together in that sentence example. On so, a different page, some example sentences also suffered from this issue: they were either ungrammatical or did not use the word in a way that neatly matched the definition provided in the entry. And some were probably added in by @JMGN. My personal opinion is that if @JMGN is not entirely sure how a word should be used in example sentences, they should not be adding any to its entry page because naturally, it'll confuse a future searcher who would want to see how the word is used.
The following is somewhat off-topic, but I've also noticed that the user adds large amounts of topics to the talk pages of entries, most of which are either questions that've already been covered in the definitions of the main page (or on some other page), or are not questions about the entry but are instead just them saying some grammatical point. Take the talk page of return, for example. Here, they just post some grammar info, but it doesn't seem like they're trying to point out something wrong with the main page. On the same page, they ask the meaning of the usage of return in many happy returns, but they also link the entry page in the topic title, which would've answered their question. (It's a noun becuse many is a det. and happy is and adj.) On some talk pages, the user has been making topics for years, also confusingly signing themselves as @Backinstadiums, for example in the talk page of well.
Am I just overreacting with the talk pages thing? Am I wrong about those sentences' grammaticality?
My two cents (native AmE speaker): in fairness to the "as I work" example, it is not unidiomatic, even if it's not someone else's preferred phrasing. It could be replaced with a still-better choice, but it's not wrong, descriptively. The example with "as I don't either" is weak, though, because it's not really how a native speaker today would express that thought. Not gratingly so; but a native speaker today would sooner say "and neither do I", or "and I don't either", or "and I dislike it just as much". Best for WT usexes to be comfortably/well within the range of modern idiomatic norm rather than at the edge. For anyone editing en.WT as an ESL speaker, please keep in mind that if the usex you added gets edited by someone else, you should err on the side of deferring to a good-faith edit rather than being miffed and reverting it. As for the talk threads: as long as they're not hurting anything, best just to let them lie there unanswered, I'd say. The critique above offers JMGN a chance to take it under consideration for the future. HTH. Quercus solaris (talk) 01:30, 26 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
This user has been problematic for quite a long time. They've been trying to learn English by doing massive amounts of research in authoritative sources, which only goes so far.
Explaining English syntax completely is a major unsolved problem in linguistics that has attracted some of the best minds in the field. A lot of good work has been done- but even the best and most recent is still a work in progress. English represents the collision of Germanic and Romance languages and the loss of a great deal of inflectional morphology accompanied by the reworking of the entire syntactic structure. The influence of substrata in many regional varieties worldwide and extensive social changes mixing up the sociolinguistics has compounded this. The language is notoriously difficult for non-natives to master well.
This person is very proud of the work they've done, and takes every opportunity to show it off. They ask a lot of questions on entry talk pages that are pointless for native speakers and confusing for non-natives. They add lots of material from their sources that doesn't make much sense outside of its context in those sources, and they add the usage examples at issue here.
The unavoidable fact is that, for all but a few special people, near-native competence in speaking another language only comes from lengthy exposure and a lot of practice with good feedback from others who know the language. Passive comprehension is much easier, but still has its pitfalls.
This user just doesn't realize how far they are from that goal, and their insistence on showing off what they've learned has led to many embarrassing gaffes on their part, and their participation on talk pages and in discussions can be grating and annoying. Recently, Equinox responded to one of their pointless talk-page queries by asking if they were autistic. It would be inappropriate to try to diagnose, but- whatever their problem may be- they need to realize how far they are from near-native competence in English and stop embarrassing themselves with failed attempts like their usage examples to show it off. Chuck Entz (talk) 15:15, 26 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Well put. I had not realized the magnitude of the problem with this user, JMGN, in particular. JMGN, you should consider collecting these thoughts in your userspace first, by default, then thinking twice or thrice before taking them anywhere else. You don't have to not jot them down — not at all — instead, merely first put them in a place specific to you alone, and then filter them such that only their best highlights escape that holding pen. Quercus solaris (talk) 16:19, 26 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
At the very least, JMGN ought not be reverting edits (even reversions and deletions) of their contributions to running English text, whether in definitions or usage examples. Both definitions and usage examples are (the only) outposts here of prescriptivism with respect to grammar and word choice. The justification is that adhering to a contemporary standard will make it easier for the broadest group of normal users to understand the definition or usage. DCDuring (talk) 16:31, 26 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Since the revert, they've added on as, "the flight might be late, as happened yesterday, so I've brought snacks and drinks for as many people as need it," with the odd "as need it" part at the end. Can a literal native speaker not override the opinion of a (supposed) non-native? (I mean, it says their L1 is Spanish.)
Another criticism to them is it seems that other people have commented on their large additions to talk pages and their edit-warring on the user's own talk page and they just delete it after. I don't know if you're allowed to do that, but it makes it harder to see any criticism that someone might have had against them. That doesn't seem fair to me.
Finally, the user has thousands of edits on various pages. Who knows how may erroneous definitions or usexes they've put because they might've not had a native understanding of the entry.
So? In the example given, it seems stilted, as does the eating and reading were taking place at the same time as each other, for which I'd say, for at the same time as each other, simultaneously or at the same time. That the meaning and grammar are correct does not mean that the expression is natural to a native speaker. I'm sure I could eventually find a quote somewhere in CGEL (2005) to that effect. DCDuring (talk) 12:20, 27 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Maybe these are the cases where it is "grammatically correct" but "unnatural" for a native. There are tons of cases like that. Anyway, if it's unnatural, it's best not in the dictionary, I think.
The sentences here that you've put still sound odd to me though. Sentence 1 doesn't need the verb at the end; same with sentence 2. Sentence 3 is just oddly formed. Yes, it's totally grammatical, but no one would form the sentence like that unless there's special emphasis on the act of eating or drinking in context. I think it'd be much natural to say, "they ate and drank at the same time." The "as each other" bit, sure, but again, kinda redundant.
It seems "at the same time as" sounds okay when the complement of as is a (pro)noun but not a clause. So "same time as him" is okay, but *"same time as he did" is not. As for why they're being used in the CamGEL or in Swan (2017) or in English WordReference instead of more natural-sounding sentence, honestly I don't know.
"They ate and drank at the same time and both nearly choked." There are so many ways to create garden-path sentences or merely ambiguous ones. DCDuring (talk) 14:23, 27 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
...Or not. Idk. I was wrong I guess. Where do we put the new entry, because maybe it's true that to the extent and to the point are similar, but the word point and extent on their own are almost opposites. It'd be misleading to say that these words by themselves are synonyms. 13:38, 6 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Man, I was just about to edit to cross out what I said to replace it with "Actually, the two might be valid, just that I'd say point instead of extent. Somebody else might say extent," but you edited while I was editing and it gave me a edit merge page when I pressed submit. Anyway, the suspicion is confirmed: they're both "correct", but one is used far more than the other. I'm wondering what page we'd enter this in.
I hate to pile on, but I don't think equate and comport are really synonyms, either. I can see how someone would read our definitions as being somewhat synonymous, but to my understanding something like How ill this dullness doth comport with greatness. is about dullness (not) being compatible with greatness, whereas if you equate dullness with greatness, you are saying that dullness is not merely compatible with greatness but is greatness (or is, in and of itself, equivalent to greatness). Am I misunderstanding or should we undo that edit (and maybe improve the definition of comport)? - -sche(discuss)19:36, 6 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
The current definitions suggest that equate(def 1) is definitely not comport(def 2). They don't even have the same transitivity. A person can equate thing A with B, and thing A can conform with thing B. But there's nuance because A agreeing with B or being in accord with B (or supporting the notion, claims, etc. of B) does not mean that A is also B. Yes the meaning is similar but definitely not the same. 21:58, 6 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I don't think the senses have changed too much, unless you want to add the obselete senses in. 22:57, 6 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
The user continues expeditiously making a silly number of edits and reverts, adding example sentences that, for the key purpose of demonstrating a word's usage, are quite unnatural or lacking in practical context or may even not be grammatical as well as many problematic synonyms that aren't really synonyms . Providing an example or a screenshot from a trusted source when challenged indeed does minimally help us understand where they are coming from (especially with few edit summaries), but ultimately the fact that two words can be used in similar slots in similar contexts with similar meanings is not really sufficient to list them as synonyms. I don't have time, interest, or patience in sorting through arguments why these sort-of synonyms don't really apply like -sche has done, though, but please continue reviewing the contributions. Hftf (talk) 11:25, 7 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
@Hftf (1) He took me into his confidence si perfectly grammatical (as in in confidence), (2) This morning the icy wind (that) bit to the bone is a typo salready fixed, which happens to the best of us, believe you me (3) Tell us why He continued to protest his innocence is not a (near-)synonym of to aver, to maintain as true., I'm all ears. JMGN (talk) 11:40, 7 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
@JMGN, on sentence (1), the set phrase is in confidence. Set phrases aren't so maleable. For example, we often say, "no matter what" but if I change the determiner no with any, it's ungrammatical (*"any matter what"), just like swapping the adposition in that phrase and then adding a possessive determiner is also ungrammatical. Any person, regardless of if they were familiary with the idiom in confidence, would interpret the sentence as if the speaker were erroneously trying to treat the word confidence as some physical location. This is because into is an adposition that typically implies movement towards the inside of an object. Clearly confidence is not a phyiscal location, so it is not correct in meaning (#"He took me into his confidence").
In addition to this, if the word confidence actually means any of the meanings listed in its entry, then it further suggests that sentence (1) makes no sense. Compare the dubious or odd sentences:
(1) I wasn't saying that it's ungrammatical, it's that it's a sentence that barely helps (non-JMGN) readers at all, as likely the first thing they'll do is try slotting the first gloss into the bolded word, resulting in "He took me into his feeling of certainty" or then "He took me into his firm trust or belief" or "He took me into his faith," none of which sound any bit natural or elucidate the sense. You also reverted (2) among other fixes of your typos for some reason within minutes so it would be beneficial to be less trigger happy. (3) The word protest here means to assert in the face of some required disbelief or accusation, and connotes repeated, desperate, or emotional denial due to the speaker not being believed, while affirm does not require any of that, making it not a synonym.
I repeat that finding an example where one word is able to slot in place of another word really just doesn't work as a sufficient test of synonymy. Unless it's a nuanced or obscure sense or a deadass oversight, native speakers protesting that X isn't perceived as a synonym of Y should be trusted to some extent. Hftf (talk) 12:06, 7 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
My counter to sentence (3):
Protesting something is when you don't agree with something, so you go out to the street, or try to make some vocal statement regarding your opinion against that thing (it's mooore or less like this). Now, none of what I just said included "to aver or to remain as true," so... there you go. Affirm is like confirm. I mean, the definition speaks for itself... 12:09, 7 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I'm telling you, @JMGN, protest doesn't not mean affirm. Protesting someone's innocest actually implies the opposite. ...Nevermind. Did not see that. Surely that's not a common meaning of it, right? The next meaning is literally "to object to"; they sound like opposites. 12:26, 7 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
What does this thread have anything to do with that? I asked there for a cite of information you provided, which you provided, thank you, and voiced simply that as a native speaker I would find the provided stress unnatural (see also ). Why is any response from me necessary?
If you're spamming talk pages trying to make fetch happen, please don't also spam at people in other unrelated fora to demand answers in unrelated fora, this feels like starting drama. Hftf (talk) 21:19, 8 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I think a warning is due to the above user for deleting other users' talk-page messages they don't like without explanation and for whatever weird tit for tat placed in the wrong forum is going on above . Let's make sure to please not continue doing this in the future. Thanks Hftf (talk) 22:11, 8 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
@JMGN, are you sure it's okay to just delete others' answers to yours if you don't like it? ...in a talk page? I mean, you did the same thing with that one IP user, and now the above comment. I'm not well versed on all the rules of Wiktionary / Wikipedia, but I have a feeling that doing something like that is probably an easy way to get your editing priviledges restricted, especially if you're just doing it without putting a reason in your edit summary... 22:32, 8 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
You could put it back. I said this after having reverted your edit, so if you reverted my edit at any point from when I said that to now, I wouldn't have had an issue with it. I was quick to revert, and that was unneeded, but in my defense for the confusion, protest (object) and protest (affirm) are very unalike. 00:56, 9 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
@Languagelover3000 Who told you that substituting the wording of the abstractly concise sense definition is THE lexicographic criterion? Even so, rephrasing it appropriately would make it suitable sooner or later, smh... JMGN (talk) 01:13, 9 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
It's not, and I know, but I think it's a good rule of thumb. True synonyms usually can replace their counterpart synonym anyway, even phrases too. Anyway, something's wrong with that sentence. Either it's the sentence doesn't belong under that sense, or it's the fact that you changed the idiom from (what you claim it is) "in confidence" to "into his confidence," or maybe the whole phrase "take (someone) into one's confidence" should be made as an idiom, like it is in Cambridge Dict. In fact, I think the last idea is the best because... that phrase fits the criterion of an idiom. 01:33, 9 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I see them adding lots of synonyms/pseudo-synonyms in level 4-5 headers below headwords (instead of using {{syn}}) with multiple definitions without providing {{sense}}, {{senseid}}, {{t}} or some other necessary parameter; also confusing prepositional verbs with their plain counterparts (make is not make of!). Saumache (talk) 09:07, 14 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
for statement 1, indicate would be a good example, speak of doesn't work as a synonym for all five meanings, try to use {{syn}} as much as you can
for statement 2, a sentence you thought was bailing you out in this self same thread: "I couldn't make/comprehend anything of her last remark." where the verb is indeed make of, not make, which you in fact put as synonym for comprehend
After having been checked back and forth, behaving as you do now will get you nothing but being banned, this is a collaborative project, and nobody wants saucy zoomers calling them ridiculous names. Saumache (talk) 12:33, 14 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
@Saumache Anyway, I see no "comprehend, understand" sense in make of. 2) REgarding the synonyms in indicate, that was there already: it was not me that created it (BTW, there are very many such cases in several entries, so I guess new meanings were added over time, but the synonyms section remain untouched, so that now there's a serious mismatch...) JMGN (talk) 13:01, 14 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
@JMGN statements are point a) and point b) I addressed in my first text.
interpret > understand, wiktionary pages are sadly not always the best sources, what sense at make were you even referring to when coupling it with comprehend?.
As for the synonym issue, I advise you to put synonyms under the correct definition, even when not yours; I myself am constantly bloting and sorting out synonym headers if need be.
P.S. after checking make out, the page does mention at sense 6. the meaning 'interpret' but redundantly stating "construed with of", to be cleaned up I guess. Saumache (talk) 14:07, 14 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
(and indirectly highlights that our definition at favourable has room for improvement to make the meaning come across clearer: I feel like something needs to be added to the definition, maybe "advantageous"?),
3 seems wrong (vaulting optimism might happen to be overconfident in sense 1, but it seems incorrect to add vaulting as synonym of sense 2, "cocksure, rude and disrespectful"),
5 reverting another editor was plainly wrong, breaking the formatting and not a good synonym, either,
6 and 7 are largely correct (syn vs ant seem to be out of order, but Jeff's bot will fix that; and ending with |}} instead of }} is a substandard thing that, JMGN, you should please stop doing, even though it doesn't seem to actually cause any problems at this time because the modules are smart enough to ignore empty parameters),
10 is perhaps technically not wrong, but I undid it because I think it's better to leave the mention of doubtless to the usage note, which covers its unusualness, rather than just list it as a usex,
12 needed to be qualified, which I have taken care of, because it's not usual language anymore,
13 added various questionable (some seemingly wrong) synonyms to estimate, and the formatting is sloppy, having the last item in the list end with a comma as if more are to follow; I have revised the list;
14 is questionable because you can't really sub "put" into the usexes and cites listed for that sense, even though it is sometimes substitutable: I have tentatively switched it to {{cot}} + explanatory gloss;
15 is technically correct although I suspect the reason no-one had added it previously (AFAIK) is that the sense of quit which is the synonym is different than the sense that the definition "To vacate one's place of employment" would lead one to be thinking of,
(which BTW indirectly highlights that our last definition of overtake should possibly be split into two senses ― if e.g. anger overtakes you, does this definitionally have to involve surprise, or can be be a straight synonym of overcome?
18 seems understandable but maybe an error (?): I can see why someone would think that the fact that the words can be interchanged in a variety of situations would make them synonyms, but it seems like their actual meanings are not synonymous...?
and highlights that our definitions of both total and make could probably stand to be improved (or at least better cross-linked to mention each other as {{syn}}s or {{cot}}s),
21 I'm unsure about: the words have similar senses but they're not always interchangeable grammatically, e.g. in the "X, appointed by Y to be Z, was..." usex you can't sub in make AFAICT,
and for 23, I think I may understand the thought process behind the edit (thinking of "what do you make of it?" type usage?) but it seems incorrect (?).
(I also spotted and undid this a little earlier.) We all make mistakes―I had a brain fart earlier and capitalized cognomen in one of the many quotes I added to cognominal, which J3133 fixed two instances of, prompting me to fix the third―and I can see how JMGN might feel 'under attack' and perhaps that's prompting the somewhat rude cattiness above. Nonetheless, JMGN, you need to take to heart that multiple editors have identified that a concerning percentage of your edits have errors, and please try to do better. - -sche(discuss)07:01, 12 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
@-scheLet's make/schedule a date for Friday. I make/estimate the value at $1,000. I couldn't make/comprehend anything of her last remark. What do you give/estimate for his chances of getting her back? Etc. JMGN (talk) 09:02, 12 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
-sche took the considerable time to review, in detail, quite a number of your contributions, and that's all you have to say? I'd urge you to stop picking at details, zoom out, look at the bigger picture of what people are trying to communicate to you, and then respond at that big-picture level. This, that and the other (talk) 10:12, 12 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Get over yourself and stop wasting our time cleaning up your faulty edits that misunderstand synonyms and literal thousands of talk pages. Hftf (talk) 10:31, 12 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Re propitious: I see. It is a understandable thought process, to check a reference work and, upon not seeing a pronunciation we list in it (and seeing some other pronunciation instead), remove the pronunciation; over the years, various editors have done that on various entries — and have sometimes been right, but have sometimes removed valid pronunciations (e.g. of azure), which other editors have only sometimes noticed the loss of and brought up for discussion and restoration, which is why it's not an ideal practice. I won't blame you for not knowing better; now you do. More generally, I do believe you're editing in the good-faith belief that your edits are correct (and some of them are), which is why I've been joining the other users here who are trying to help you get better at identifying which ones are not correct; the problem is that many of your edits are not correct, and many of your responses are coming off as rude or recalcitrant. Today I noticed this, adding boom as a synonym of campaign "take part in a campaign", which I don't understand: I know a person might boom (speak loudly), or speak, or agitate, in favour of something they were campaigning for, but that doesn't seem to make boommean or be synonymous with campaign (just like it doesn't make speak and agitate synonyms), and I don't see any definitions in our entries (or the OED's) that look like they make those words synonyms; what definitions of those words were you thinking were synonyms? I also noticed this, adding seede as a synonym of plant; assuming you meant seed, I'm not sure sense 1 of plant is a synonym of seed...? You seed (put plant seeds into) a lawn, but plant a plant (by putting it into a lawn, dirt, etc). This is interesting because it feels like it could be right (I'm familiar with the trope of people being 'so happy they could break into song'), but I can't find a sense of sing by which the words are actually synonymous. This also seems wrong. OTOH, other edits are fine (e.g. this seems close enough to count as a synonym). In general, your (as you might put it: vaulting) assessment of your English abilities continues to exceed your actual English abilities. Given that, (and this comment I address to everyone here:) I'm not sure what to do here. Someone clearly needs to (and if I have time, I will) go through the user's edits to fix the erroneous ones, and as long as mainspace edits continue, that's an ongoing maintenance task, so I'm considering blocking JMGN from editing mainspace (leaving them free to continue editing and making suggestions/questions on Talk: and Wiktionary: space); does anyone have a better idea? - -sche(discuss)19:11, 14 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
@-sche Re pronunciations, all of a sudden attestations do not matter, so even if no lexicographical references are found (written material), it's O.K. to maintain them? This criterion seems to be in a flux.
2) "your edits are correct (and some of them are)" would entail that more than 50 % of them are wrong, which methinks a bit too many, even though admitteldy I am always hazarding a lexicographical reproach.
7) Rather than nativenesss, this is an issue of lexicographical approaches, which in a communal project are gonna necessarily vary : https://doi.org/10.4324/9781315104942
8) I can instead suggest all potential edits, but I doubt somebody will care about hundreds of them a day...
Re: boom, I think it's a good idea to check whether we have a term - and more importantly, how we present it - before adding it as a synonym. We have this sense at definition 6: "(US, slang, obsolete) To publicly praise" (I've added "promote" to the sense, with a couple more cites - although I still don't think it's a synonym of campaign, I can see why someone might define it that way). I'd avoid adding obsolete slang as a synonym, at least to main entries, since it's more likely to confuse users than to help them (the only potential use case would be writing historical fiction). Properly labelled, obsolete slang could go in a Thesaurus page. Smurrayinchester (talk) 08:29, 15 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
One idea I had is having them add senseids to their links and having them at least place an exemplifying sample sentence in edit summaries, since the user takes an initiative in contributing mostly advanced idiomatic senses and knowing which word substitution exercise inspired their edit would save some of the back and forth as native speakers try to figure out why they think something is a synonym. Hftf (talk) 20:15, 14 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
@Hftf Take into account I've never created a new sense in any entry, not a single new definition, but rather tried to accommodate meanings to what is already there, when possible. JMGN (talk) 21:17, 14 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
@-sche They are still going on their editing spree without seemingly heeding our calls,
(: no senseid, linking back to pander on pamper nor corresponding senses found on either page for that matter; ; ), also adding obscure/wrong synonyms only over being thorough in their editing (; : how?). I'd wait and see what comes forth from them in the near future, blocking them from mainspace would do the trick. Saumache (talk) 08:39, 15 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
@JMGN I'm here referring to the template {{senseid}}, see there for a quick tutorial I made not too long ago. If you have any questions, feel free to ask them away! again, it's a collaborative website. Saumache (talk) 17:09, 16 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Do we need a subscription to Grammarly to address pure grammar issues? Could we offer them our services flagging their mistakes or questionable calls? DCDuring (talk) 00:48, 16 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
It's not just grammar issues; it's also meaning issues. A good portion of their errors stem from them making one word synonymous with another when they are actually near-synonyms or not actually related. Plus, as it seems, other people (excluding me) keep doing that—flagging their errors—but for some of the errors we flag, the user doesn't take it too kindly or just overrides our edits. | Languagelover3000 (talk) 04:55, 16 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
@DCDuring Who knows how many bad edits the guy has made at this rate, linking this one as a general example among the dozen or so we already have linked to. I think this calls for a mainspace block as -sche suggested, and quickly. Saumache (talk) 17:35, 16 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I know it's not just grammar, but systematically identifying grammar problems would enable us to systematically identify editors not qualified to compose definitions or usage examples, as seems to. Such a tool might help some editors, like me, by catching mistakes (typos, confusions, etc.). DCDuring (talk) 12:12, 17 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
See, that's definitely a near-synonym. When people see the word crude, they think "raw" not "approximate." Approximate in "the approximate location of an object" cannot be swapped with crude (*"The crude??? location of an object"). Also, what dictionary is that? | Languagelover3000 (talk) 19:32, 16 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Sometimes when editing I lose my place reading because the numbers of the senses do not show up... How do you guys deal with this issue?
That particular dict is the electronic Encarta (based on Random House Learner's of AmE), but the OED also features that sense (11. (Statistics) Unadjusted; not corrected by reference to modifying circumstances; spec. crude birth-, crude death-rate, the total figures before adjustment).
Still put it as near-syn, 'cause it's... not really a "synonym." (Refer to parasynonymous.) As for that issue, I struggle with it myself too. I wonder if there's some type of "extension"? that allows you to see the edits better... | Languagelover3000 (talk) 19:55, 16 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
@Languagelover3000 If I remember correctly, there is a paradox about (pragmatic?) synonymity that ends up excluding even the existance of interlingual synonyms due to nuanced subtleties: you can always refine current senses into new ones.
Anyhow, from now on, if a word is only partly synonymous for me, I'll never add it. I anybody begs to differ, I am open for discussions and even a poll. All I want to do is learn fom you all.
@JMGN Having near-synonyms/obscure synonyms while not having ones you'd first think about sure seems strange to me; will be getting back to approximate, after a short spell. As for your issue regarding editing,... use the preview tools? There is an extension (or is it?) that splits your pc screen and lets you see both code and previewing while editing, the AjaxEdit gadget also provides for it. Saumache (talk) 12:40, 17 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I'm reluctant to do this, but given this user's inability or unwillingness to comprehend that their edits are problematic, amply and repeatedly displayed above, I have (for the reasons elaborated in more detail above) blocked the user from editing mainspace and Thesaurus space for 3 months. - -sche(discuss)17:46, 17 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 1 month ago2 comments2 people in discussion
I have recently created the Latin entry for Danaeius, as it is attested in Ovid's Metamorphoses. Based on the context and several online translations (as well as the interpretation of the word as Danae + -ius), the word is generally agreed to refer to Perseus (son of Danae). However, one thing I've been having trouble with is finding out how to deduce the vowel length. I immediately went for Danaēius, since in Latin, Danae has a long vowel on the e (Danaē), and in -ius, all the vowels are short. However, this was merely a guess and I'm starting to doubt that this analysis is correct. Is there any way to correctly figure out the specific vowel length in this word (e.g. based on the meter), or is it just lost information?
In hindsight this looks like a really dumb question and it might be as simple as Danaē + ius, but I'm just unsure. Sumxr (talk) 23:08, 25 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Yes, you can use scansion, and for a term like this, the first thing to look at is how it scans in Latin poetry. Resources to use: Hypotactic, PedeCerto. (They are not perfect, so use with caution, but they will help you get started.) Dictionaries also may have information: Lewis and Short is not very reliable for pronunciation, but Gaffiot 2016 in Logeion marks this word as ending in -ēĭus.--Urszag (talk) 23:46, 25 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Vietnamese word for the planet Mars
Latest comment: 1 month ago5 comments3 people in discussion
Isn't this part of more general variation in the placement of tone markers? I don't know if it's correct, but Wikipedia says "In syllables where the vowel part consists of more than one vowel (such as diphthongs and triphthongs), the placement of the tone is still a matter of debate. Generally, there are two methodologies, an "old style" and a "new style". While the "old style" emphasizes aesthetics by placing the tone mark as close as possible to the center of the word (by placing the tone mark on the last vowel if an ending consonant part exists and on the next-to-last vowel if the ending consonant does not exist, as in hóa, hủy), the "new style" emphasizes linguistic principles and tries to apply the tone mark on the main vowel (as in hoá, huỷ)."--Urszag (talk) 00:58, 26 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
I don't know which is why I asked here instead of changing it myself. If both are correct should there be two cross linked entries? I asked ChatGPT (yes, I know!) and it justified it like this. I don't know if its argument is sound.
You said:
Which is correct? "sao Hỏa" or "sao Hoả"? I'm seeing both on various websites.
ChatGPT said:
The correct spelling is: ✅ sao Hỏa — with the "ỏ" tone mark.
Why?
In Vietnamese, the word Hỏa (as in sao Hỏa, "Mars") comes from Sino-Vietnamese and means fire (火). The proper tone is the hỏi tone, marked with a "?"–like symbol above the vowel:
Hỏa = fire 🔥 → used in contexts like sao Hỏa (Mars), hỏa hoạn (fire disaster), hỏa tiễn (missile).
Even without knowing Vietnamese, I'm pretty certain ChatGPT is wrong here. The ngã tone is written with the diacritic ◌̃, not ◌̉. If you also don't know Vietnamese, you can look to Wiktionary:Vietnamese_entry_guidelines#Spelling for more information. It says "The lemma form of Vietnamese words in Wiktionary is the "modern" spelling: always writing i instead of y in monophthongs (mĩ instead of mỹ) and putting the tone accent on the second vowel in oa, uy, oe (khoẻ instead of khỏe)."--Urszag (talk) 01:33, 26 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
It's useless to ask ChatGPT anything, since anything it says could be right or wrong, and you don't know which without finding reliable resources and checking them — you save yourself time if you just check those to begin with. You might as well ask a coin. I just flipped one and it said Hoả was right and Hỏa was wrong. - -sche(discuss)01:10, 27 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 29 days ago7 comments5 people in discussion
Are we missing a very basic sense here? The sense of equal used in "We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal" and "All animals are equal, but some are more equal that others." I don't think this is sense 1, where we currently have the quote - the American Founders did not believe all humans were the same in all respects, nor would "identical" be a valid synonym there. It's closer to sense 2, but we have that marked as a strictly mathematical sense at the moment. Should we have a "Having the same value and rights; neither privileged nor disadvantaged." to cover this and phrases like "equal rights" and "Everyone should be equal"? Smurrayinchester (talk) 08:03, 27 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
The second equal in the Orwell example is a nonce meaning.
The wording for definition 1 seems wrong to me. How about something like "the same for some purposes or in some regard or aspect". Equality is always within some particular frame of reference. That includes the mathematical sense, IMHO. DCDuring (talk) 12:38, 27 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Good catch. Merriam-Webster has "1b: like in quality, nature, or status. 1c: like for each member of a group, class, or society" (distinguishing the subsense used in all men are equal from the subsense used in equal employment opportunities); Dictionary.com has "like or alike in quantity, degree, value, etc.; of the same rank, ability, merit, etc." and Cambridge has "the same in importance and deserving the same treatment" (combining the subsenses MW splits). I have tentatively added one sense covering both the men are equal usex/subsense and the "having the same rights" subsense. Please revise further if needed. I left sense 1 as it was because such a sense does seem to exist (in use and in other dictionaries) precisely in situations like the usex, "Equal conditions should produce equal results." - -sche(discuss)16:46, 27 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
I saw no definition in any OneLook dictionary that agrees with our definition "The same in all respects". I don't see that the citations require such a definition. Is identical a synonym of equal? DCDuring (talk) 17:48, 27 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
The entry as currently written does indeed need some improvement. The first sense shouldn't simply portray the adjective "identical" as a first-listed synonym, as it currently does — better as cot or nearsyn, but not syn, because readers can too easily misinterpret that assertion as simple interchangeability , even if that notion (interchangeability) was not meant. It is descriptively true that sometimes someone says "equal" (adj) and means (in that instance) "fungible" and/or "not different in any way that matters." Meanwhile, though, as Smurrayinchester rightly pointed out, that is certainly not the sense that was meant by 18th-century thinkers or founders who stated famous concepts such as "all men are created equal" or ""liberty, equality, fraternity (liberté, égalité, fraternité)"; rather, they meant equality under the law, that is, having the same rights, thus not being second-class citizens or third-class citizens. But people with antidemocratic leanings often either honestly misapprehend (some of them) or dishonestly pretend (others of them) that those founding slogans were "obviously" stupidity or lunacy or idiocy (i.e., "it's obvious to common sense that people are not all the same, so 'therefore' small-d democratic thought is 'obviously' stupid, insane, or nefarious"). Thus, incompetent misinterpretation in some cases, and malevolently intentional misportrayal in others. Polysemy's a bitch in natural language, but we're stuck with it, and thus also with perennially disabusing such things. As for Wiktionary doing the latter, one of the senses entered for "equal" (adj) could perhaps be ""fungible; not different in any way that matters", which is not the same as "identical" although sometimes it is not different from "identical" in any way that is considered to matter (contextually). Quercus solaris (talk) 18:53, 27 June 2025 (UTC) Update: I tweaked it at the adjective POS accordingly. Quercus solaris (talk) 19:07, 27 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Ghost Pronunciations: 阜 (fù) as fou instead of fu4 produces Kufow, etc.
Latest comment: 1 month ago1 comment1 person in discussion
Is there another pronunciation for 阜 beside fu4 ㄈㄨˋ? It appears "fou" was believed to be a pronunciation for the 阜 in Qufu, producing several variants like Ch'ü-fou (pinyin: Qufou). And this appears elsewhere that 阜 appears. The Fuping in Hebei has a variant spelling of "Fou-p'ing" (pinyin: Fouping)- see: pg 651 col 2. At https://ctext.org/dictionary.pl?if=gb&char=阜 I see: 扶缶切. Together, this all leads me to believe there is a variant pronunciation. But the variant pronunciation does not appear at the entry for 阜 (fù). Other Chinese characters have this same issue: 溪 (xī) as qi (ch'i) instead of xi as in Pen-ch'i, 埠 (bù) as fou instead of bu or fu as in Sungfow, 港 (gǎng) as jiang (chiang) instead of gang. And see K'o-shih (Keshi for Kashi). So, I plan to start a new section on the Talk pages of each of these characters to compile information about these ghost pronunciations until some "solution" can be made. --Geographyinitiative (talk) 09:40, 28 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 1 month ago1 comment1 person in discussion
I'm sure that the singular Ocimibundu should be Ocimbundu. The root is Mbundu, and there are versions of the common Bantu ki-/vi- prefixes, and the extra -i- seems 'obviously' a typo. One which unfortunately has propagated all over the Internet. WP has Ocimbundu as singular. But I'd like someone with a better knowledge of Bantu to confirm this. Hiztegilari (talk) 18:48, 28 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 1 month ago1 comment1 person in discussion
since shinjitai 余 maps to both kyuujitai 余 and 餘, what are the actual attested ways of writing these surnames in kyuujitai? (only the surnames are ambiguous; the "blessings, benefits" sense of 余沢 is a borrowing from literary chinese 餘澤.) -- also, 余澤 is either a kyuujitai entry or spelled in half-kyuujitai for some reason, depending. ragweed theatertalk, user18:55, 28 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 27 days ago7 comments5 people in discussion
Can we define this better? Sense 1 is "(British) A flat, round bread bun, usually containing currants, sultanas or peel and often served toasted and buttered with tea", but it seems like in both Britain and Ireland (0:35; by other speakers throughout the rest of the video) a wafer with marshmallow covered in chocolate (like this), whether called a "Tunnock's chocolate teacake" or "whippet", can also be a kind of teacake. (Something to cover in a separate definition, or by expanding the first one?) Sense 2 is "(US) A traditional cookie", which seems vague (and probably also wrong, too narrow?). Wikipedia says "In the U.S. teacakes can be cookies or small cakes". One American friend I asked said "teacakes" could be "cookies, scones, or petit fours"; another said "small sweet cakes or petit fours, but not scones or cookies or biscuits". Wikipedia also says: "In the Southeastern United States, a teacake is a traditional dense large cookie, made with sugar, butter, eggs, flour, milk, and flavoring." - -sche(discuss)00:32, 29 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
In my experience (native AmE speaker), in my region this term is culturally a passive vocabulary item, not an active vocabulary item, but (at the same time) the compound is transparent enough that people can plausibly fill in the blank regarding what each person would predict that it would be or ought to be: some kind of baked good that would complement a cup of tea. This would explain why different AmE speakers in my region might give different answers. I see that MW defines it with senses of (1) a small flat cake usually with raisins or (2) a cookie. Supermarket bakeries in my region sell items matching sense 1 under the term "tea biscuit"; I don't remember ever seeing one labeled "teacake", but I also wouldn't be surprised if I ran across one labeled so sometime. FWIW, those tea biscuits are more biscuit than cake, using the terms as we usually use them here, where anything with "cake" in the name often tends to be sweet and dessertlike and things with "biscuit" in the name often tend to be more like this than like this. Meanwhile, the term coffee cake is active vocabulary where I'm from and has a pretty unified denotation here: it usually means something in the crumb cake category. Quercus solaris (talk) 04:39, 29 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
According to Wikipedia there’s also a ‘Russian tea cake’, AKA ‘snowball cookie’ (though some people on the talk page simply refer to them as ‘snowballs’) or ‘butterball’, which is a still different type of baked good. Despite the name, it’s apparently an American term for an American food. Are you familiar with them? We could also specify where in England ‘teacake’ simply means ‘bread roll’ (‘bun’ seems to be a less good descriptor, as it’s only ever used to mean a roll/bap/cob/batch that’s been sweetened/spiced/seeded in my idiolect). That raises the questionː “Should we split sense 1 into 2 separate senses, create a subsense, or rely on tags or usage notes specifying ‘East Lancashire, West Yorkshire and Cumbria’ (the regions stated in Wikipedia) to do this?”. Overlordnat1 (talk) 07:48, 29 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
DARE has an entry for tea cake: "Chiefly Sth a cookie, usu of a delicate flavor and not heavily sweetened. Note: In many contexts it is impossible to determine what is meant by tea cake; only exx that clearly refer to a cookie are included here." Eleven examples follow. My personal experience accords with sun oak's. DCDuring (talk) 15:27, 29 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
For the UK, I'd say the bun sense and the marshmallow sense are separate, with the marshmallow sense being more Scottish and the bun sense being more English. I'll add the Scottish sense. Smurrayinchester (talk) 07:53, 1 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
A bit of digging confirms that the teacake is a plain cookie in the Southern US. I've tentatively added the "small delicate cake or pastry; petit four" definition as "chiefly US" too. Smurrayinchester (talk) 13:25, 1 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
sv:alltjämt
Latest comment: 29 days ago1 comment1 person in discussion
In Standard Swedish, alltjämt means 'still, steadily'. Historically, it also meant 'always' (see SAOB) and still does in some regions. An example from Ostrobothnian Swedish (Finland): "he e alltjämt sama problem" (Standard Swedish: det är alltid samma problem 'it is always the same problem'). The entry currently only lists the former meaning. My suggestion would be to add the second, historical/dialectal meaning as well. Rodher617 (talk) 15:09, 29 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 27 days ago4 comments4 people in discussion
Wiktionary has a page hellgramite listing hellgrammite as an alternative pronunciation. However, hellgrammite is the spelling that renders more search results on Google, is used on Wikipedia, and is found on OED. Any reason for this? Should this be amended? Donopi (talk) 02:09, 30 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
I've been reading about hellgrammites from time to time for half a century, and I've never seen it spelled with one "m" except in our entry. Chuck Entz (talk) 05:35, 30 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Do you have a reference for that? The word certainly connotes that, but OED does not contain that qualification and defines scandal as "An irrelevancy or indecency introduced into a pleading to the derogation of the dignity of the court" . I added two quotations to the entry, but it is hard to tell from them whether some aspect of disgracefulness is a requirement for something to be legally deemed "scandalous". — Sgconlaw (talk) 19:51, 30 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Bouvier's law dictionary (US) has "MATTER, SCANDALOUS, equity pleading. A false and malicious statement of facts, not relevant to the cause. But nothing which is positively relevant, however harsh or gross the charge may be, can be considered scandalous." 4 Bouv. Inst. n. 4163.
This directly supports the challenge to the definition, as does common sense. Anything that is scandalous in this sense must be scandalous in the usual sense, but not vice versa. DCDuring (talk) 20:07, 30 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
The citations are hard for me to interpret as unambiguously supporting the definition because I cannot tell for sure which sense of impertinent is being used, "irrelevant" or "insolent, ill-mannered". DCDuring (talk) 20:18, 30 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
OED's def cited above says "to the derogation of the dignity of the court". Again, we are missing that negative connotation. It seems that a mere irrelevancy like "the suspect was wearing a hat at the time!" (so what?) would not be scandalous. 2A00:23C5:FE1C:3701:9178:5BE6:BDEA:EDD521:00, 30 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Is this a meaning that exists outside of legal proceedings? If not, then "information", "statement" are only assertions used in a judicial proceeding in evidence, testimony, or legal argument. That kind of limitation of scope should make the definition easier to understand. I don't think that this applies to something that insults the delicate sensibilities of the judge or jury, only to something derogatory or embarrassing, or possibly prejudicial, to one side or the other in the adversarial proceeding. DCDuring (talk) 22:53, 30 June 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 15 days ago8 comments5 people in discussion
I bring this up somewhat bashfully. I'm not much of a fan of translation hubs, but think we should create the entries female genitalia and male genitalia for this purpose. The terms are sum-of-parts and so do not otherwise qualify as entries in their own right, but—correct me if I'm wrong—English does not appear to have any other suitable entries for these terms where translations can be placed. For example, it does not seem accurate to put translations for the female genitalia at vagina or vulva (which are parts of the female genitalia), and it does not seem appropriate to put translations at slang words such as pussy (which seems to be where most of the translations have ended up) or prat (one Finnish translation). I have not checked where translations for male genitalia are being placed. I encountered this issue when editing old hat, an archaic slang expression for the female genitalia. — Sgconlaw (talk) 19:08, 1 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
@Sgconlaw: This is true. Why should they look up SoP entries though :/? They still will, irrespective of our wishes, search pussy, because virtually all terms vague enough to make no distinction between vagina and vulva are somewhat risqué if not vulgar, and so are the connotations risked when talking about the matter and searching for target terms. The problem is that you got one of the practically rarer academic contexts, as an editor, when portraying and linking terms, which a priori attains lower ranks in internet popularity.
Maybe we should have translation tables inside topic-pages in the Thesaurus namespace for such cases, not depending on any language entries. This also works for abstract grammatical features: Appendix:Terms with no English equivalent/yes-no I now find moved from the mainspace, having not too few hits. (At first someone boldly made a table template added to Arabic etc. entries—still visible in the history of this page—because after all the English equivalent is no word.) Fay Freak (talk) 20:37, 1 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
What are the translations which actually need a better home? Spot-checking, it seems like the translations at pussy are labelled as vulgar and/or slang, and thus correctly placed in that entry. And vagina is commonly used to mean the entire apparatus including the vulva, so it seems like the best place to put any translations which refer to that. How many words are there which would actually be more sensibly placed on an entry like female genitalia? How many one-word/idiomatic translations are there which refer to the entire male genitalia and thus cannot be placed at penis, but are also not slangy or vulgar and so can't be placed somewhere like package? - -sche(discuss)00:08, 7 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
@-sche: those are good questions that I don’t know the answers to. I assumed that there are non-SoP terms in other languages for these body parts, and would be somewhat surprised if there aren’t. Do enlighten me, people. — Sgconlaw (talk) 02:14, 7 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Support only if there are enough non-slang terms to warrant creation (as noted by sche). to respond to @Fay Freak, users looking for translations in specific are the ones who would be searching for these entries. to accomate further, if these entries are made, then on other pages (like vagina, vulva, pussy, etc.), should have a "see-also" translation template to direct users: e.g. in the section it would have "female genitalia" directing to the new entry and "part of the genitalia" (vagina, vulva) or "slang: female genitalia" (pussy) remain in the old entries. Juwan (talk) 10:45, 8 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Support creation if it can satisfy WT:THUB criteria; criteria 1 and 3 should be satisfied, but no translations (criterion 2) have been mentioned yet. Polomo (talk) 23:13, 13 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
antaa potkut
Latest comment: 27 days ago3 comments3 people in discussion
Proposal: “decolonial minimalism” as a neologism with philosophical/artistic usage
Latest comment: 23 days ago3 comments2 people in discussion
Hi everyone,
I’m proposing the inclusion of the term “decolonial minimalism”, which I’ve coined to define a minimalist artistic and intellectual framework that actively resists colonial aesthetics and dominant cultural narratives. It’s rooted in postcolonial thought, particularly within Filipino contexts, and is being documented through zines, visual archives, and digital publications.
While the term is still emerging in durable third-party sources, I’ve been actively archiving its usage and provenance. Here are some early references:
The term appears in artist manifestos, zines, and curated digital exhibitions. I’ve also included photographic documentation (e.g., archival placards and visual timelines) to support its origination and usage.
I understand Wiktionary’s emphasis on third-party attestations, and I’m open to feedback on how to responsibly document terms that are in active circulation but still gaining formal recognition. I’d appreciate any guidance on formatting, sourcing, or collaborative refinement.
Our Criteria for inclusion also require that these uses are independent, which is IMO insufficiently clear for these references. We furthermore distinguish uses from mentions (see use–mention distinction). In the phrase “This movement is called Decolonial Minimalism”, the term is mentioned, not used, and the fact that the term is next defined, following the question, “What is Decolonial Minimalism?” reinforces this.
Once the term starts being used, also in reference to the work of other artists, without needing its meaning to be explained to the reader, the term has been adopted into the English lexicon and is ready to be included in dictionaries. It will then be clear how the entry can be formatted, sourced, and if necessary refined.
Inasmuch as you can stimulate the process of adoption, may I suggest that you try to persuade like-minded artists, also from other decolonized countries, to start using the term in describing their own work? If you can be perceived as a multinational vibrant movement, approach people from the art world who are sympathetic to the movement and could curate a joint exhibition. Set your aim at an exhibition with a catalogue in a prestigious location, using the term in its title. I know, all easier said than done, but don’t set your aim too low. ‑‑Lambiam14:32, 5 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Thank you for the thoughtful guidance. I agree that broader, independent usage is essential for lexical inclusion. I’ll continue fostering cross-cultural artistic collaborations and encourage like-minded creators to adopt Decolonial Minimalism in describing their own work. The vision is indeed to evolve it into a living, multinational movement—one that speaks for itself without requiring definition. Your insight helps shape that path forward. IJWBAA (talk) 04:30, 6 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 23 days ago2 comments2 people in discussion
I think this word can have a secondary stress on the second syllable as well. Also, why is there a dot after the first "s" in the pronunciation guide? Having a syllable boundary there makes little sense to me. -- Mölli-Möllerö (talk) 09:43, 6 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
You can add just a hyphen there. The dot is there to represent how consonant clusters are generally broken in speech when there is nothing else to suggest where they should be broken. — SURJECTION/ T / C / L /10:55, 6 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Agogare, Атас
Latest comment: 23 days ago1 comment1 person in discussion
At first, I assumed it was suffixed with some derivative of -tor, but I can't find any page for -tour or any other Provencal words with this suffix. This dictionary seems to suggest that it also borrows from the Latin word actor. I don't think a compound of gesticulor + actor would work in the Latin language and I can't find any other information on it, so I suppose the term would have to be a post-Latin development. I would assume, therefore, that it was probably an independent creation of Provencal, although I can't confirm that hypothesis. I also can't find any actual quotations on the internet archive, google scholar, or google books.
@Graearms: Provençal and Franco-Provençal are two completely different languages. Provençal is a dialect of Occitan (code oc) spoken in Provence. Franco-Provençal (code frp), also known by the less misleading name Arpitan, is spoken further north, in east-central France (Franche-Comté, Savoy, etc.), northwestern Italy (Val d'Aosta) and western Switzerland. However, the dictionaries you list above all actually seem to be dictionaries of Old Provençal, i.e. the Provençal dialect of Old Occitan (code pro), not Franco-Provençal. So, the place to look for the -tour suffix is in Old Provençal Occitan. —Mahāgaja · talk17:07, 7 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Thanks for the clarification regarding the languages,
I did some further research, and I found the existence of an Occitan term amatour (, , , ), which shows the same suffix -tour. This could be another Occitan descendant of -tor, although Wiktionary only provides the version -dor (see Category:Occitan terms suffixed with -dor). I found evidence for a fondatour () as a parallel to fondador and a servitour (, ), perhaps as a parallel to servidor if it maintained the meaning of Latinservitor. I also found evidence for servitour in this text documenting the dialect of Vannes. I suppose it may be an alternative form of the word. I don't know enough about the Romance languages to really sort this information.
I also found some evidence for an Occitan term actour or atour
Latest comment: 20 days ago8 comments4 people in discussion
"Any of genus Gloriosa of lilies native to tropical and southern Asia and Africa."
Is this supposed to mean "Those of the lilies of genus Gloriosa that are native to tropical and southern Asia and Africa." (ie, excluding those native to other parts of the world)? (restrictive interpretation, influenced by absence of comma before native)
Or "The lilies of genus Gloriosa, all of which are native to tropical and southern Asia and Africa."? (nonrestrictive interpretation, which would be aided by presence of a comma before native) This reading reflects the facts.
This is kind of thing is very common in definitions of organisms. Do most users get the restrictve/non-restrictive distinction that I draw? Is there a better way of briefly communicating such facts than relying on punctuation? DCDuring (talk) 13:38, 8 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Nonrestrictive. Commas are often avoided in definitions lest the following part be understood as an alternative wording for a gloss. I see how you can read it the restrictive way but the word melody or emphasis would make the formulation unlikely. I am out of creativity right now about how misinterpretation can be excluded briefly. Fay Freak (talk) 13:56, 8 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I suppose we could adopt the convention that alternative (reworded or different PoV) definitions could be separated by semicolons. And we could place synonyms where they belong. Too bad we can't count on the reader automatically understanding our intent, without the benefit of spoken delivery. DCDuring (talk) 14:16, 8 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I always try to add the comma. Unfortunately, many who add definitions do not seem to check the facts and may not be sensitive to the restrictive/unrestrictive modifier distinction. But why should our definition writers be any better in this regard than the bloggers, journalists, etc who deserve to have an AI supervisor. DCDuring (talk) 15:44, 8 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
The rephrasing can be read as distinguishing the lily members of the genus from other, non-lily members of the genus. I don't object to the (OED, AHD, Century, MW1813, W1828, Wordnet), though MWOnline and WNW often have a. I think I picked up the nul-determiner usage from some scholarly articles and perhaps a taxonomy style guide in one of the Codes (not botanical, perhaps LPSN or ICTV). Reviewing Google Scholar hits shows that the nul-determiner is much less frequent than the. DCDuring (talk) 16:45, 8 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
IMO, the only thing that keeps them from being redundant is the "mature" part of the second definition. Is that meaning attestable? The second seems to be a poor definition, apparently including women who experience early puberty. DCDuring (talk) 22:26, 8 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
AHD has the following two definitions (among all the others):
"a. Disposed to dissipation; wild: ran with a fast crowd.
b. Flouting conventional moral standards; sexually promiscuous."
Latest comment: 18 days ago8 comments5 people in discussion
Normally I'd be braver and just make some of these changes, but since these are basic English words, I figure maybe there's good support for the status quo and I should start a discussion in the first place instead of doing something that gets reverted.
I don't think the second noun definition of blue and the "white bean" subdefinition of white should exist, since they're describing a feature of the language in general, not the word. You can use any adjective to mean an "X one" or the "X option", not just two specific colour terms.
There are other ones on other pages that are more specific but have the same idea, and it's inconsistent. yellow has a "yellow card" definition, without a counterpart on red. Some colours mention an X pigment and not others. Uncreative Username 37 (talk) 23:19, 8 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Grammatically, there are restricted contexts where any adjective can be used freely without an accompanying noun, but words like blue and white have some notability in that they can be used beyond those restricted contexts. For example, use of the pluralized forms ending in -s, "blues" and "whites", goes beyond what we normally see for any adjective.--Urszag (talk) 00:23, 9 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I'm not sure colour words are that unusual when it comes to being able to pluralize: can't you also say (for example) that a crowd of notables and/or deplorables turned up wearing larges and/or hand-spuns and handwovens? However, I do think all these words deserve noun sections as a result — just like any word that can be attested as a verb with verb inflections deserves a verb section, even though in theory any word can be verbed. (My opinion is that if someone sees "he counted three pintos and two whites on her plate" and looks those words up, it doesn't make sense for us to have a ===Noun=== section for "pinto" but expect the reader to somehow figure out on their own that the other noun should be sought in the ===Adjective=== section. I'm fine with merging any over-specific "a white X thing", "a white Y thing" senses into a general "a white thing" sense, though.) - -sche(discuss)08:13, 9 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I just realized I used ambiguous wording with "beyond what we normally see for any adjective". I meant only that not all adjectives are freely used this way, not that no adjectives other than color adjectives are used this way.--Urszag (talk) 09:05, 9 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
This thread makes me think of the mood conveyed by Geoffrey Pullum in his 2024 book when he poo-poos the idea that such nouns as the poor and the rich are merely "nominalized adjectives", even though it is common (and not scandalous) for people to think of them and describe them that way. His gist is that they are full-fledged nouns, more than people tend to appreciate. This thought makes me (i.e., someone who is not well CamGEL-versed) lean toward the gut feeling that -sche is right in saying (above), "However, I do think all these words deserve noun sections as a result". Quercus solaris (talk) 01:43, 10 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
For the record, the reason I think something like "two pintos and three whites" deserves a noun section is because it's acquired an inflected form that nouns have and adjectives (in English) don't, namely a plural form. Something like "the poor" or "the recently killed" (which shows that not just adjectives can be used this way, but also verb forms) doesn't seem to have acquired noun-specific forms (?), so per Talk:sick#RFD_discussion:_September–December_2020 I think those should still be viewed as adjectives. I think of it as Occam's razor, to not posit a new POS unless we have to (this is also why I don't support positing that all nouns are also pronouns). - -sche(discuss)17:43, 10 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
AFAICT the general use of adjectives as common nouns for referring to entities that have a characteristic quality denoted by the adjective – apart from specific idiomatic cases that deserve special lexical treatment, such as “furry” – is restricted to plurals. If we have corresponding entries, they should note the restriction to the plural form.
Here are a few uses of nominalized colour names:
Butterflies: “blues”, “coppers”.
Fruits: “reds”.
Poultry: “whites”, “browns”.
In these cases the names denote heritable phenotypical traits. I do not see comparable uses of non-colour adjectives for phenotypical characteristics, such as shape names to identify members of species as longs, shorts, pudgies, etc. ‑‑Lambiam15:33, 10 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
At least to me, the senses are quite separate. While uses of unheard-of are generally hyperbolic, the literal sense is that something thus tagged is a novum, something that has not been reported before because it had thus far not occurred. So it is (hyperbolically) being described as being exceedingly rare, astounding, something you can’t believe actually happened. Only used to express a negative sentiment, synonyms of hyperbolic unheard-of are outrageous, scandalous, shocking. Use of the term serves to signals the speaker’s indignation.
In contrast, the term untold has no specific role of expressing a moral judgement, and neither does it have a connotation that that which is said to be untold is rare – it is just that words fail to paint its quality. It can be “untold beauty”, “untold joy” or “untold perfection”. ‑‑Lambiam13:11, 10 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 18 days ago3 comments3 people in discussion
Our entry for ʽby a long shot’ has a linked Spanish translation to the phrase ‘ni con guinche’, only that phrase doesn’t seem to exist, as a redirect is in place which takes me to ‘guinche’ (meaning ‘crane’). Also, searching directly for ‘ni con guinche’ yields only one hit, the ‘by a long shot’ page itself. Could someone undo the redirect if possible? That might mean having to create a ‘ni con guinche’ page first, I suppose, but I’m not really sure what’s going on here. Overlordnat1 (talk) 23:41, 9 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I had little problem finding uses of this collocation: , , . However, I have the feeling that the meaning of all given Spanish translations is negative, “not by a long shot”. I’ve just made ‘ni con guinche’ into a red link, as is not unusually for translations, especially multi-word ones. ‑‑Lambiam12:17, 10 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
not by a long shot. I don't think that by a long shot occurs very often on relatively current usage without close proximity to not with this definition. I would make not by a long shot a lemma entry, with the positive form ,by a long shot in its etymology. I don't think this dual-lemma approach is applicable to most negative polarity items, for which there are many occurrences in current English in irrealis clauses and/or in simple positive usage. DCDuring (talk) 15:07, 10 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Let's not use the fallacy here. The image has been already toned down by request a lot, though I can grudgingly neuter it completely. Grudgingly because if Wikipedia is not censored then neither is Wiktionary.
General practice here has been to not use eroticized (especially NSFW) images when non-eroticized ones better describe the term being illustrated. I think the objective has been to make as much of Wiktionary as possible acceptable to educators and parents of children who may use the site. Our role is principally to provide images when they are more explanatory than words alone. We are a pretty good source of search terms for specialized erotic and pornographic websites, which is to say that we are a complement to them, not a competitor. DCDuring (talk) 15:27, 11 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
The editors above appear more knowledgeable on furry culture than me (at least I know Juwan is), but I’m curious whether the inclusion of this illustration (which I wouldn’t say bothers me very nuch) doesn’t reinforce a common misconception that fursonas, or furry culture in general, is inherently sexual? Of course these things are very related, but I believe I’ve seen much criticism about perceptions that they are inherently so. I imagine there are many pooltoys without big breasts and an hourglass figure, so, just as we wouldn’t define them as erotic, it might be worth it not including a sexualized image. Note that Wikipedia also has the guideline w:WP:GRATUITOUS, which addresses how “non-offensive” content is often preferred to “offensive” content if they are equally informative. Polomo (talk) 23:30, 13 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
thank you for the comment! while the misconception that furry culture is not inherently sexual is important, it isn't yo be solved here. WP:GRATUITOUS is important, but as of now, we don't have illustrations of other OCs or by other artists. Juwan (talk) 23:38, 13 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I just came to the page to add to this. I was going to mention this, but never wrote it down: I’d much rather have this image than none at all (which is also something WP:GRATUITOUS speaks of). Further, I believe the image is far from vulgar, at least after its modifications, and thus oppose removing it. Polomo (talk) 23:40, 13 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
There aren't that many cognates outside of Germanic to begin with, but I replaced one of the Russian ones with a Lithuanian one that has closer semantics. —Mahāgaja · talk18:51, 10 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 18 days ago1 comment1 person in discussion
As a Cantonese speaker, 黑糖 and 黃糖 denote completely different things. Here on the Wiktionary entry it only lists the former as a dialectal synonym of the latter, but in Cantonese, especially HK and Macau Cantonese, 黑糖 is a kind of less-refined sugar commonly found in Taiwanese and Japanese sweets, whereas 黃糖 is just the standard word for brown sugar. OTOH, I did a quick search, and I'm not sure whether muscovado is necessarily a synonym of the less-refined sugar, and not jaggery either. If anyone has any input on this, I'd love to hear it. Insaneguy1083 (talk) 19:27, 10 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Territory flag emojis
Latest comment: 18 days ago1 comment1 person in discussion
there are a couple of entries for territory flag emojis (category). as of today, these include Brazil, Hong Kong, India, Nigeria, US and the US Outlying Islands. I wish to know, how should these be handled in Wiktionary? should there be a template for this type of definition? should the pages for all countries be created, possibly with a bot? should these be deleted instead? Juwan (talk) 20:07, 10 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
itimil
Latest comment: 18 days ago4 comments3 people in discussion
While enjoying a hot chocolate, I randomly stumbled upon this Reddit thread about a map of translations of "chocolate". Comments by Turkish speakers seem to suggest "itimil" is a made up translation. As far as I can tell, it was added in Special:Diff/49938238 by an anonymous IP user, which makes it even more sketchy. I do not speak any Turkish, but if anyone here does, could you please shine your light? --HyperGaruda (talk) 20:12, 10 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
@JMGN: I don't think anyone appreciates such snarkiness from you. Moreover, instead of wasting time, you could have just mentioned the OED entry and asked for comments on what it means. Sense VI.27 defines give as "To offer, propose as a sentiment or toast." It seems to me that the modern sense in this regard is "to offer (a toast)" (as in "to give a toast"), and that the sense "to make a toast to (someone or something)" (perhaps as in the quotation from Dickens' Pickwick Papers: "Gentlemen, I'll give you the ladies; come."—having read the relevant page the meaning isn't very clear to me) is archaic. The OED entry has not been updated since 1898. (Pinging @-sche who reverted your edit in toast.) — Sgconlaw (talk) 19:01, 12 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
It seems like our entry doesn't have that sense at present; in general, it doesn't make sense to list one word as a "synonym" of another without adding the definitions by which they're synonymous. If the OED is correct in their interpretation of those cites and that sense exists (or, existed), it may no longer be current: I haven't spotted modern uses of e.g. someonegoogle books:"who gave the health"of someone else (in a toast), or google books:"he gave the health", and the way that I (at least) would interpret an announcement like "friends, I give you the bride and groom!" at a wedding today is more along the lines of "I present / introduce..." (a sense I notice we also fail to clearly cover―oof, I may try to overhaul the entry later). If the "propose as a toast" sense is real, but archaic or obsolete, then after that sense is added to give with the appropriate tag, any mention of it in toast's {{syn}}s that is (re)added should include the qualifier (q1=). - -sche(discuss)22:19, 12 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
If -st and -rd are … we include them for clarity and because dictionary users are reasonably likely to search it; I do not essentialistically assume that everything leading or trailing with a hyphen or a kashida as an entry should be regularly understood as an affix, but due to our entry layout these entries need a part-of-speech heading, wherefor there is not much creativity. There is a principle like “add what you find”, actualized for example also on دَسَّى(dassā) or بَرْنِيَّة(barniyya) or many albeit redlinked alternative forms charged with taṣḥīf or similar edition corruption. I mean we can add a thing to specifically say it does not exist or is not productive, right? We well do it because otherwise somebody else would do it, and make it worse—more frequently known from refuted etymologies, though these can often be relegated to reference sections. Fay Freak (talk) 13:04, 12 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
WORTHY: synonym of worth?
Latest comment: 16 days ago5 comments3 people in discussion
Hmm. The grammar of a sentence has to change if one is replaced by the other, as DCDuring suggests: "an idea worth consideration" but "an idea worthy of consideration". (Right?) I'm not convinced they're interchangeable enough to be listed as synonyms. Related terms, sure. - -sche(discuss)22:55, 12 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Related: Wiktionary:Beer_parlour/2022/July#Should_alternative_forms_be_in_topical_categories? It's hard to say: there are benefits and drawbacks to either approach; if two forms are particularly dissimilar, it (arguably) helps some people to have both in the category; OTOH, having a category with (say) 500 entries, where 50 are different places and the rest are alt forms of those 50, would (arguably) be unnecessarily hard to use, and such a situation does exist in some cases, e.g. with iluec, as noted in this May 2024 discussion about moving alt forms out of POS categories for at least some languages for similar reasons (which apparently ended without reaching a decision, alas). - -sche(discuss)21:07, 12 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 14 days ago2 comments2 people in discussion
Noun sense 3, "(uncountable) Wealth, fortune, riches, property, possessions. £1.2 million worth of Bitcoins", seems wrong to me; the definition does not appear to be supported by the quotation. The meaning of the word in the quotation doesn't seem to differ from sense 1, "(countable) Value. a dollar's worth of candy, stocks having a worth of two million pounds", only the countability is different. (Am I missing something?) I don't see a definition like our sense 3 in the OED. Should we fold sense 3 into sense 1 and just define it like "(countable or uncountable) Value"? - -sche(discuss)23:00, 12 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 14 days ago1 comment1 person in discussion
One sense is " Insurance; a contract for the payment of a sum on occasion of a certain event, as loss or death. Assurance is used in relation to life contingencies, and insurance in relation to other contingencies. It is called temporary assurance, in the time within which the contingent event must happen is limited." This is copied verbatim from Webster's 1913 dictionary. Probably needs updating/deleting TypeO889 (talk) 15:36, 14 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 12 days ago5 comments3 people in discussion
I noticed the recently added Dublin pronunciation /fʲuːd/. How is it possible to say it with a palatalised f, other than to say it as a rhyme of ‘feud’ ( /fjuːd/)? Also, do people actually say ‘food’ as a (near) homophone of feud in Dublin or anywhere else? If anything, I’d say this sounds more Welsh than Irish. Overlordnat1 (talk) 04:03, 16 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
The IP who added that and a few other Dublin pronunciations geolocates to Korea. Either someone's a long way from home, or they're venturing out onto thin ice... Chuck Entz (talk) 05:43, 16 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
According to w:Dublin English § Phonology, the Dublin accent has the characteristic of pronouncing goose as moderately or strongly fronted: . I expect someone heard and interpreted it as . I think feud is probably still distinct, though. If there's any accent where food and feud are homonyms, it's East Anglian, where beautiful is pronounced "bootiful" and few is pronounced foo. —Mahāgaja · talk06:21, 16 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I almost mentioned East Anglia and the West Country but that would only account for 'feud' being pronounced as 'food' not 'food' being said as 'feud'. Some weird things go on with yods in Welsh English which is why you/ewe/yew, choose/chews and threw/through can be distinct w:Welsh English. I disagree with the analysis there a bit though, yod-dropping can and most certainly does occur in Welsh English, with 'noo', 'nyoo' and 'nee-oo' all being possible pronunciations of new. --Overlordnat1 (talk) 12:20, 16 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Yeah, I've also heard that the whole thing about chews and choose being distinct in Welsh English is true for only some varieties, not all. —Mahāgaja · talk21:32, 16 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Turkish terms related to politics, populism, and reform
Latest comment: 12 days ago1 comment1 person in discussion
Turkish terms related to populism, patriotism, reform, and related civic and political concepts need attention from a native speaker. They attract attention from people who are probably not good English speakers. I can't tell how much they have a political agenda.
Latest comment: 6 days ago7 comments3 people in discussion
I'm not happy with the adverb definition of en femme which I rewrote: "Of a cross-dressing, non-binary, or trans person: while dressed in feminine clothing". Here are examples of the term used adverbially (which are modifications of quotations in the entry): "She walked through the lobby en femme" (i.e., she walked through the lobby dressed in feminine clothing); "He served them cocktails while dressed en femme" (he served them cocktails while dressed in feminine clothing".
I was thinking of a definition like "Of the action of a cross-dressing, non-binary, or trans person: done while dressed in feminine clothing; also, of the act of dressing by such a person: in feminine clothing". But does this definition actually define an adverb, or does the phrasing suggest an adjective? Please help me out here. — Sgconlaw (talk) 17:28, 16 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Adding the "done" to the first one does suggest an adjective. And I'm not sure en femme is ever an adjective. All the quotations at en femme#Adjective look adverbial to me. They could all be (purely syntactically) replaced by an unambiguous adverbial prepositional phrase like "on ice". —Mahāgaja · talk21:26, 16 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
@Mahagaja: hmmm, but the quotations in the “Adjective” section seem to show the term unambiguously qualifying the nouns. In any case, how would you redraft the adverb definition? — Sgconlaw (talk) 21:41, 16 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I hadn't heard it before but can find some uses of it, though it seems like it might have different (non-trans-related) connotations? (I'm not sure.) This says "Here she was for the first time dressed en garçon, the 'very image' of her father in 'braids and buttons of real gold", and this says "Sophie dressed “en garçon” when she was young and living in Paris with Sand's father, Maurice Dupin". - -sche(discuss)19:46, 22 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I notice that some terms which have this grammatical structure are entered as adverb+adjective, and others as prepositional phrase (for example, in the nude). Consider a phrase like "in women's clothes", using English in instead of French en. Would we consider "in women's clothes" and/or "as a woman" to be a prepositional phrase? It seems like it can be substituted into all of the quotes with no change to their grammar or meaning ("see a photograph of him en femme"→"see a photo of him in women's clothes"; "walk through the lobby enfemme"→"walk through the lobby in women's clothes"; etc). So should en femme also be considered a prepositional phrase? I'm unsure. - -sche(discuss)19:46, 22 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Sikes/Psyches
Latest comment: 3 days ago3 comments2 people in discussion
Has anyone ever heard the colloquial phrase get one's sikes meaning "to get one's thrills" or to "get one's rocks off" often from something indecent or shameful (e.g.
He just sat there rubbing my elbow...gleefully...getting his sikes.
) ? I've only ever heard it, never seen it written, so I'm not sure how this is spelt (whether sikes, sykes, psyches). Leasnam (talk) 21:49, 16 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Sadly, I haven't heard it and can't find anything for "getting one's pyschs/sikes"; the only thing google:"his pyschs" nets me is a WWII text where it probably means "psychiatric evaluations", and the only things "his sikes" finds are about an author's character, his Sikes. I have no idea if it's related (either to this or to other senses of pysch) or not, but there's a Washington DC-area slang term sice (rhymes with rice) meaning "to excite". - -sche(discuss)19:55, 22 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Thank you. Also, sice led me to find this online: “siced” is pronounced like “slice” without the L. sice = lend some sort of favor or give something sike/psych = be excited. (Sike can also be used as “just kidding”) - which alludes to a "sike/psych" with the meaning mentioned further above, so I'll keep looking Leasnam (talk) 15:05, 25 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
i think it can be both .... mixed in with the literal uses on X i can find here both "(she's an) Oxford study" and one that depicts a whole scene. Lollipop (talk) 22:31, 22 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 7 days ago7 comments4 people in discussion
I've noticed people seem to use this word almost as a replacement of crazy, but in the slang sense. I tried editing the page a bit, but I don't really know how to articulate it well and it seems there are more meanings it covered that crazy doesn't. Any help? | Languagelover3000 (talk) 00:40, 17 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I agree that ‘wild/crazy/insane’ are often used to mean something like ‘wildly unexpected’ and I approve of your recent edits but this sense of ‘diabolical’ has passed me by, could you provide some examples or quotes to support this meaning? Overlordnat1 (talk) 07:23, 17 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Here are 12 quotes from Twitter. I literally just searched "diabolical" in the search tab and was flooded immediately with a plethora of examples with the word in ONLY its slang sense. My argument is that diabolical here is not meaning first two defs—extremely wicked or cruel (like actually evil; not slang sense), or concerning the devil—or at least not literally (maybe figuratively, in a slang sense).
Below are quotes, edited for punctuation ('cause I'm a grammar nazi like that). Notes are in brackets. Most of these have pictures attached, so the context really clears it up that they do not mean wicked or cruel, or devilish.
(1) Maybe it's just me, but eating cereal with a glass of milk on the side is diabolical.
(2) Goofy, after hitting Steve with the most diabolical combo of all time.
(4) This scene was legitdiabolical. Straight up EVIL!
(5) This shot is diabolical.
(6) 15M LIKES and 100M views in couple of days is diabolical.
(7) The "how to save a life" part was absolutely diabolical. 😭
(8) South Africans hating on Rele Mofokeng has to be the most diabolical thing ever.
(9) Most times, all you need is good lighting for content creation. But 700 views and 78 likes is diabolical. 😔
(10) Triple take is DIABOLICAL.
(11) Only the most diabolical people would talk bad about Rove.
(12) Bare computer mouse coochie on a public seat is diabolical.
Lots of these seem like a slang way of saying something like mischievous, naughty or maybe like devious (in the slang way)? But the context is slang, i.e. informal or a bit humorous. Some of these also just seem legit like a replacement of the word "crazy" as in "crazily good" or "crazily unexpected." | Languagelover3000 (talk) 15:54, 17 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I've heard this, but not in the US, mostly UK and Australia. Not all of the examples strike me as unambiguously having the same meaning. Some seem to mean "remarkable" (perhaps in a clever or devious way), others something like "unexpectedly devious or clever". The core is "devious or clever", but sense development seems to have washed that out leaving "remarkable". But that's just my understanding and reading. DCDuring (talk) 02:25, 18 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I largely share DCDuring's assessment of the meaning; to my understanding, the initial meaning was ~"devilishly devious, cunning", but over time it has been bleached in some cases. Out entry for devilish has room for improvement; I have tried to overhaul it, but the senses blend together in practice. - -sche(discuss)16:21, 18 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
As the quotes above illustrate, diabolical seems to have the same problem as devilish, that some uses of the term seem to invoke multiple aspects―or put another way, the meanings of the term are sometimes loose and overlap with each other. For example, some uses of diabolical above seem to add some of the negative connotation/valuation from the 'wicked' sense; others don't; also, some uses are more 'bleached' of meaning than others. Similarly, in the case of devilish, someone had assigned the usex "devilish grin" to the sense "Characteristic of a devil; wicked or highly unpleasant" as if it were a negative thing, whereas I have more often seen it used to denote a mischievous or "roguish" grin on someone who is plotting fun mischief, in which case it is not "unpleasant". - -sche(discuss)01:19, 22 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I’ve just removed it. There are other quotes available if you search ‘I’m/You’re/he’s/she’s/what a neek’ on GoogleBooks but they don’t really support the overly specific definition either. Overlordnat1 (talk) 07:42, 17 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 7 days ago8 comments4 people in discussion
The definition reads: "portable rocket launcher, also known (via a backronym) as a rocket-propelled grenade." I don't understand what "backronym" is doing in here. Was the Russian term ручной противотанковый гранатомёт constructed as a backronym to fit the letters RPG? That should be in the etymology section instead. Is the definition asserting that the English phrase "rocket-propelled grenade" is a backronym for "RPG" and that "RPG" originally meant something else? That would belong in the English entry's etymology section instead if correct. - -sche(discuss)15:34, 18 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
According to the lede of Rocket-propelled grenade, The term "rocket-propelled grenade" is a backronym from the Russian acronym РПГ (ручной противотанковый гранатомёт, ruchnoy protivotankovy granatomyot), meaning 'hand-held anti-tank grenade launcher', the name given to early Soviet designs. So apparently the English name was indeed engineered to fit to the initials RPG. I don't know if backronym is really the right name for this process, though. —Mahāgaja · talk18:57, 18 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I don't think an RPG is a grenade in the usual sense (the word was presumably just chosen because it's the only good G-word that refers to an explosive). I think the defining feature of a grenade is that it's essentially a free explosive charge, to be thrown or launched ballistically (by a catapult mechanism or small mortar). An explosive charge on a rocket is a warhead, something different. Wikipedia's entry on RPGs starts "A rocket-propelled grenade (RPG) is a shoulder-fired anti-tank weapon that launches rockets equipped with a shaped-charge explosive warhead", and unlike a normal grenade, designed to be equally deadly however it lands, an RPG is a shaped charge. But we confuse matters with our quite vague definition of grenade - "A small explosive device, designed to be thrown by hand or launched using a rifle, grenade launcher, or rocket." - under which definition this probably is SOP. I personally would remove the "or rocket" from the definition, and add "rocket-propelled grenade" as a hyponym. Smurrayinchester (talk) 14:09, 21 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
The words don't seem to have a close connection, except for them both referring to skin issues for babies. Google's AI doesn't "think" they are the same. They apparently have different causes, if AI is to be believed. DCDuring (talk) 17:49, 18 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
What I think of as "baby acne" is the condition related to witch's milk in the week or so after birth, when leftover maternal hormones in the baby's body cause acne outbreaks (in just the same way that puberty hormones do in teenagers). That seems to be something totally different to red gum. That said, baby medical conditions are pretty poorly defined a lot of the time, especially in their folk speech names. Smurrayinchester (talk) 09:15, 20 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 7 days ago6 comments5 people in discussion
I’ve noticed for a long time now that many people use this word in a way that is only partially accurate, usually when referencing a popular figure of speech. Examples:
Outside of all the learned institutions of his country, and while employed with his chisel and hammer, as a stone mason, this man literally killed two birds with one stone; for he earned his daily bread and at the same time made himself an eminent geologist, and gave to the world books which are found in all public libraries and which are full of inspiration to the truth seeker.
What literally broke the ice that first night was when a 98-year-old retired professor spoke up. “Well, I have a choice of what to think about when I have insomnia at night. Being a lover of mathematics, last night when I couldn't sleep, I decided to calculate the tonnage of ice I delivered as a boy.”
These seem to fit under definition 2.2. My only worry is that our current definition is a little too broad; it includes examples where the adverb isn’t really inspired by both an idiom and something actual.
It's something kind of penumbral to sense 1.2 I think - halfway between 1.2 and 2.2. The geologist literally used a stone, but not to kill a bird. The mathematician literally started a conversation with ice, but didn't break it. I go back and forth on whether this is really anything distinctive, or just the kind of looseness that arises in natural figurative speech. If we want this as a sense, I think a non-gloss subsense under 1, along the lines of "Draws attention to a pun or other wordplay involving an idiom." Smurrayinchester (talk) 09:05, 20 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
What is weird is this text on the Wiktionary page for "literally": "Nevertheless, it is worth knowing that if one's own speech or writing is intended to persuade or impress (for example, in formal contexts), using this word loosely tends to be counterproductive to those goals". As if Wiktionary is aiming to give life hacks or tips to people. Find me a real dictionary that has casual advice of this type in its definitions.— This unsigned comment was added by 2A00:23C5:FE1C:3701:EC26:1943:CE46:3469 (talk) at 01:39, 21 July 2025 (UTC).Reply
Publisher's lists have plenty usage guides that contain abundant advice of that type, eg, such classics as Fowler, Strunk & White, MWDEU, and Garner's. Such guides provide useful models to improve our own advice, but also show that specific advice can become dated or worse, though it may take decades. DCDuring (talk) 12:27, 21 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Regarding "Find me a real dictionary that has casual advice of this type in its definitions": There are several kinds of ignorance built into that sentence. First, the usage note is not "in definitions" at all. Second, have you ever even looked inside any edition of the American Heritage Dictionary at all? Have you ever even seen any of its usage notes? Such notes concisely help people who are looking to avoid usage that others might consider inadvisable, not because it is "right" or "wrong" but because some people believe that it is wrong. Notice that Wiktionary's usage note does not prescriptively tell people what is "correct" or "incorrect" — it merely informs them descriptively of the undeniable fact that they can predictably expect complaints about certain usages because many people believe that they are undesirable. Quercus solaris (talk) 19:22, 21 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 5 days ago2 comments1 person in discussion
English swamp lists Spanish embalse as a translation, but embalse only defines itself as "reservoir". Does it also mean swamp, in which case the meaning should be added to the entry, or does it not mean swamp, in which case it shouldn't be listed as a translation? - -sche(discuss)22:54, 20 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 5 days ago3 comments3 people in discussion
Sometimes people say things like "This is gonna be my year" or "With a string of good luck, it really has been her month." Is that linguistic or just a cultural implication kind of thing? Do you think of it as a shortening of e.g. "this is gonna be my year to excel/shine"? Just curious... 173.166.143.25401:39, 22 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 5 days ago8 comments5 people in discussion
Hello, I think it would be a good idea to make a redirection from "be able to" to "able to". I believe "able to" should be the main entry because there can be found many quotations where "able to" is used without "be" 5.172.255.23121:53, 22 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Right back at you. I think we might want to go further and redirect both entries to ], either to sense 1 or 2 or to a supersense that included both. Both of those senses have as complement a to-infinitive phrase.
As to use of able to without be, not only does it occur with other forms of be, but it also occurs with other copulas, like seem (and synonyms), become (possibly with synonyms), and verbs of sense perception (feel, sound, smell, taste, look, etc.). Privileging be with an full entry seems likely to mislead language learners. I don't think dictionaries can offer a royal road to language learning without grammar learning. DCDuring (talk) 22:52, 22 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I'm not really sure whether redirecting both entries to "able" is a good idea. I mean, sure, we can do it, but "to" can't be omited, so it's natural to keep it. Also, we have more phrases like this e.g. about to or supposed to
Using "able to" without "be" is apparent and was my point from the very beginning. It's also possible to use it without any linking verb at all e.g. "The update left the software able to run on older devices." 185.18.68.21023:32, 22 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
The normal way for learner dictionaries to handle this kind of thing is to have definitions that specify the kind of complement that a word takes. But I suppose that is so last millennium as to not be worth considering, let alone implementing. It also should be clear that we are not consistent in how we deal with these things, though consistency would be a great way of educating our users in how to use Wiktionary (and other dictionaries). DCDuring (talk) 23:45, 22 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
On second thougts, redirecting both "be able to" and "able to" to "able" is a good idea since it allows to use the correct part of speech or word class instead of this vague "phrase". Also we have "welcome" not "welcome to" even if in one sense it is always followed by "to" (See the third meaning in https://www.oxfordlearnersdictionaries.com/definition/english/welcome_3)
I wonder whether either or both of these entries should include a mention of can't able to, a collocation meaning "cannot" that's commonly found (but proscribed) in South Asian English. Or should that maybe be its own entry? —Mahāgaja · talk06:17, 23 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
My instinct is to keepbe able to for the translations, because while can can be substituted in the present tense, it's defective (I notice we claim "able" as its present participle, which I am sceptical of; it seems better to explain in Usage notes that another construction takes its place in certain tenses) and can't be used in e.g. *we will can check the results, so I'm not sure it makes sense to put the translations at can. Able to only lists one translation at the moment, so it doesn't appear to need to exist as a THUB, so I think we could redirect it to able, where indeed we already seem to cover it, if people want. I think we could mention South Asian use of can('t) able to" in usage notes at able and be able to; after this discussion, it was added as a sense of can rather than an entry *can able to because it appears that South Asians can use other words with can like can possible to, can allowed to. - -sche(discuss)16:24, 23 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
cardan vs Cardan shaft
Latest comment: 5 days ago3 comments3 people in discussion
I own a vintage car with a parking brake which operates not on the wheels but on the transmission or drive shaft. Because that shaft was originally devised by mathematician Girolamo Cardano, it is named the "cardan shaft". Wictionary offers two variant spellings, one of which uses an initial capital, viz. "Cardan shaft". I'm requesting that "Cardan shaft" be either removed or labelled as a common misspelling. If the term in use were "Cardano shaft" the capitalisation of the proper noun would be justified, nay mandatory; but "cardan" is a derived common adjective warranting lower-case spelling, as prescribed in the OED. Bjenks (talk) 07:17, 23 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
The capitalized form isn't a misspelling. Girolamo Cardano lived in the 16th century, back when it was very common for people to have different forms of their names in different languages. He is still known as Jérôme Cardan in French, and up until the 19th century or so was generally called Jerome Cardan in English. So Cardan shaft is both rule-conforming enough and widely used enough not to be considered a misspelling. —Mahāgaja · talk10:45, 23 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 5 days ago4 comments3 people in discussion
Moved from discussion below.
(I have also protected long live for one day because of counter-productive edit warring, i.e., changing subjunctive to imperative despite Wikipedia stating it uses the subjunctive and not mentioning the imperative.) J3133 (talk) 14:56, 23 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
You're also spreading the misinformation about Wikipedia not mentioning the imperative:
Subjunctive clauses can occasionally occur unembedded, with the force of a wish or a third person imperative (and such forms can alternatively be analyzed as imperatives). This is most common nowadays in formulaic remnants of archaic optative constructions, such as "(God) bless you", "God save the King", "heaven forbid", "peace be with you" (any of which can instead start with may: "May God bless you", etc.); "long live…"
I was looking at the article linked in the entry, in which the imperative is not mentioned. Even if it “can alternatively be analyzed as” an imperative, why is your conclusion that we should remove mention of the subjunctive?
You also claimed in your edit summary, “Imperative mood because it is at the beginning of a sentence without the subject”; as indicated in the Wikipedia article you linked, that is false (see also Category:English subjunctive expressions for other examples). Furthermore, you originally added the label “intransitive” with “Used in the imperative mood:” but after reverting my edit changed it to “transitive”. J3133 (talk) 16:37, 23 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
1.
The (in)transitive issue is quite simple. It should be 'transitive' because 'long live' works as a transitive verb. Compare:
Long live the king!
Sneeze the king! (sneeze - an intransitive verb)
Praise the king! (praise - a transitive verb)
It's apparent that 'long live' works like 'praise' not like 'sneeze'. Using an intransitive verb like 'sneeze' isn't grammatically correct in the active voice when it is followed by a noun or pronoun
2.
When it comes to the subjunctive-imperative issue, I believe we should mention the things that are most important for using the phrase correctly in the definition and less important things in the usage notes. I believe mentioning that 'long live' is used as a verb in the imperative mood is crucial. AFAIK, we can't say 'He long lives the king.' (declarative mood) or 'Does he long live the king?' (interrogative mood) or even 'I wish I could long live the king' (subjunctive mood) but only 'Long livethe King!' (imperative mood). Compare with 'Closethe window!' 5.172.255.21217:26, 23 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
(ɹ) additions to Received Pronunciation
Latest comment: 5 days ago12 comments8 people in discussion
46.112.114.88 and 185.18.68.210 have added (ɹ) to many terms with Received Pronunciation (e.g., computer: /kəmˈpjuːtə(ɹ)/). I undid the addition of it to car (/kɑː(ɹ)/) with the edit summary “Received Pronunciation”, which was reverted with the edit summary “Why reverted? It seems perfectly fine to me”; I wrote in my following revert, “Received Pronunciation is non-rhotic; this matches the OED pronunciation”, also noting that “seems perfectly fine” is not a rationale. Should all of the changes be reverted? J3133 (talk) 14:48, 23 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Of course, they shouldn't be reverted. In RP, /r/ is pronounced before a vowel and "r" in "car" may occur before a vowel e.g. "a car at a shop" 5.172.255.22715:37, 23 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
In past discussions, it has been argued that the linking r that appears in "...car at..." etc. is not preservation of an original r but a separate phenomenon because it also occurs where there was no original r: just yesterday I heard "...a cappella-r in...". - -sche(discuss)16:05, 23 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
David Crystal tells an anecdote of a pedantic student who complained that this was wrong; Crystal tricked him into saying "Africa, Asia and the Far East". The student left a perfect little pause between "Africa Asia" but then rolled a delightful "Asiarrand the Far East". — P.S. If we include these in our IPAs then it might even affect non-r spellings like draw. 2A00:23C5:FE1C:3701:69BC:C45B:A406:550516:10, 23 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I believe the verb 'draw' would always be /dɹɔː/ because /ɹ/ occurs before a vowel (unless RP speakers will start pronouncing it differently for some reason). 5.172.255.4817:34, 23 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
But ‘draw’ does occur before a vowel in many cases, which means its pronunciation can have a final ‘r’. Consider ‘drawing’, ‘drawer’ (as in a person who draws rather than a chest of drawers) and the phrase ‘draw it’ or ‘draw a’. Overlordnat1 (talk) 17:53, 23 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
The transcriptions with "(ɹ)" are not wrong, assuming it is understood as a convention for indicating which words prescriptively allow "linking r". But I think there is very little need to indicate this: anyone who knows what linking r is can just use the spelling of the word as a guide. And anyone who doesn't know what linking r is won't be helped much (and may be confused) by these transcriptions. (There's absolutely no need to indicate the other, non-etymological kind of linking r, the type mentioned by -sche, since the option of using that can be predicted just from what vowel sound the transcription ends in.)
I think inconsistent use of "(ɹ)" is unhelpful. However, it looks like some entries have already had it for a long time, like scar and star. Some entries once had it and then got it removed, like letter (2024 diff). Appendix:English pronunciation doesn't discuss linking r. Does anyone know of relevant votes? Maybe this is just one of the areas where we don't have a clearly established consensus about transcription style for English pronunciation. --Urszag (talk) 16:13, 23 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Amusingly, Appendix:English pronunciation was itself traditionally inconsistent, mentioning (ɹ) in some cases and not others; in September 2024 I edited it to consistently mention it, and in October 2024 Theknightwho edited it to consistently omit it instead. I agree that inconsistent use of /(ɹ)/ is unhelpful and we should decide to either always use or always omit it. On a balance, I am inclined to agree with you that because the spelling of the word indicates that there used to be an r, it is reasonable to omit it. I acknowledge that there are some cases where this fails, e.g. words like juggernaut and gorm where the UK pronunciation never had /ɹ/ and the written r was present for other reasons, but it would be naive to expect people to infer that fact from the absence of /(ɹ)/ in the UK/RP pronunciations of such entries: we should just spell things out in the etymology section or elsewhere, as gorm does and juggernaut should. - -sche(discuss)16:39, 23 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
To clarify, I understand 5.172.255.227 to be advocating the use of "(ɹ)" for the phonological phenomenon of linking r, not for indicating that there used to be an /ɹ/ in a word. In Received Pronunciation, there is a prescriptive rule (apparently not very well followed nowadays, if it ever was) that calls for only using linking r in words that are spelled with the letter "r", but there are also other conditions: it occurs only before a vowel, not before a consonant. There's no way for the phonological phenomenon of linking r to ever occur in the context of words like "juggernaut" or "gorm", so there's no basis for transcribing them with "(ɹ)" as a sign for linking r.--Urszag (talk) 16:52, 23 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I believe /(ɹ)/ should be mentioned because it is sometimes pronounced. Sometimes speakers of RP pronounce /ɹ/ when they say 'car', so it's only natural to include it in the transcription. Some dictionaries like Cambridge or Oxford Learner's Dictionaries also use this convention 5.172.255.4817:31, 23 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Yes, it is sometimes pronounced, but the notation /(ɹ)/ does not by itself do anything to explain to the reader when the (ɹ) is pronounced and when it isn't. A reader who sees it could potentially go away with incorrect conclusions, like thinking that such words can be optionally pronounced with "ɹ" before a pause in RP. If we do use it, it should at least be explained in the appendix.--Urszag (talk) 18:00, 23 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I agree with @Urszag, and would omit /(ɹ)/ for single words due to the potential confusion. I think it should only be added for terms that actually have a linking "r", such as Far East, which is what I do. — Sgconlaw (talk) 22:42, 23 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 2 days ago4 comments3 people in discussion
The usage note says "The Oxford English Dictionary (second edition, 1989) marks this word as not naturalized in English." Surely it's out of date by now? — Sgconlaw (talk) 18:34, 23 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I agree. The word is clearly naturalized into medical English in its sense referring to the palatine uvula, and plenty of people who aren't health care practitioners use it too. It's the normal word for that referent in English. My two cents: better just to delete that usage note than to keep it. Quercus solaris (talk) 02:25, 24 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
This really surprised me, because I honestly I didn't realise it was ever not naturalised in English. Certainly by my childhood, it was just the normal term, taught in school even in infants. Google Ngrams shows a rise in the 90s, approximately doubling in usage from the mid-20th century baseline. I think even by the time Wiktionary was launched, that usage note was out of date. Smurrayinchester (talk) 17:04, 24 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 4 days ago6 comments5 people in discussion
Recent edits to -al made me realize its usage note about -al vs -ar is weird. It says (and has said since last year, before any of the recent edits) that "If the root word contains l" -ar is often used instead (e.g. formular, fibular, capsular) unless "the root contains an r after the l" in which case -al is used (like lateral or plural). First, lateral and plural seem like poor examples because they don't even superficially look like they were formed in English; second, "contains" seems to be the wrong word here: the issue seems to be whether the root-stem ends withl vs r, not whether it merely happens to incidentally contain an l somewhere. No? Would it be more accurate to say something like "If the last consonant in the root is l, -ar is often used instead (for example, formula → formular, not *formulal), but a few such words do use -al (legionellal, molal, phylal, salmonellal). -al is used (and never -ar) if the root ends in r (hence agriculture → agricultural, acupuncture → acupunctural)."? (Have I missed or misunderstood anything? Can anyone wordsmith this better?) - -sche(discuss)02:14, 24 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I'd say this simply isn't a rule of English. It's a rule of Latin that has repercussions in English. In the Latin rule, if the root contained an l, then -aris was used instead of -alis, unless there was already an r in the root after the l. But the root didn't have to end in the l, as shown by milit-aris. But as your examples of legionellal, molal, phylal, salmonellal show, this dissimilation isn't productive in English. We even have an entry for one word, acinar, that takes -ar even though there's no l in the root at all. They're just two separate suffixes in English. —Mahāgaja · talk06:35, 24 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
The word legionellal sounds strange to me. There can be a range of productivity to rules; e.g. Latin has lētālis and lēgālis vs. vulgāris, and some other tricky cases discussed by András Cser. Per Cser's interpretation, the Latin rule is a bit tricky: the dissimilation can sometimes apply across intervening consonants, but Cser argues it is regular for it to be blocked when the intervening consonant is non-coronal.--Urszag (talk) 09:53, 24 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
@Urszag: legionella is named after a foodborne illness outbreak it caused at an American Legion convention, so it's a taxonomic Latin diminutive of an English word, subsequently borrowed back into English as a lowercase spelling of an uppercase original. This has been borrowed back and forth between Latin, English and taxonomic Latin enough times that violation of phonotactic constraints is hardly surprising. Chuck Entz (talk) 14:17, 24 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I'm the one who lately edited the page. I added a invisible text when editing the usage notes that the "if the root contains an r after the l" part could be deleted, I indeed have yet to find a proof that the rule was ever regarded in derivating English words, but I haven't searched that deeply. That part should anyway be added to the Latin entries -āris/-ālis with updated wording and a more precise analysis of the rule.
Some adjectives in -ar do not have their root ending in l, see cochlear (the same for other suffixes from roots ending in ea)/bilobar (but also bilobal)/lagenar (perhaps borrowed from New Latin?)/phlyctenar, but that's stretching.
I also think I unearthed an issue regarding an ending-suffix dichotomy which is here not well understood or that has at least not been that well recognized by editors up until now, here referring to the old usage notes and how they were written as if Latin borrowings such as lateral/plural had been derived in English, see also -ar(ending of some agent nouns) where I could not think of a better thing to do than labelling it as a nonproductive suffix. Same logic used by some editors in the etymologies of some Latin-borrowed verbs in -ate where they stated how these were derived on such a pattern: Latin ppl in -ātus + English -ate → English verb. But -ate being a suffix as well as an ending and the two being under a 'suffix' header is not helping fighting their logic. Saumache (talk) 15:57, 24 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 2 days ago2 comments2 people in discussion
Newbie here. In the book “Quantum field theory, as simply as possible” the author A.Zee quotes Einstein saying “The theory is of I comparable beauty. But only one colleague has really understood it, and he is trying, rather skillfully to ‘nostrify’ it… In my own personal experience, I’ve hardly come to know the wretchedness of humanity better than in connection with this theory.” Then the author uses the word nostrification without apostrophes “well, dear reader, nostrification is not only still practiced in theoretical physics, but ever more skillfully.” This would be a third meaning related to expropriation (is theft too strong?) of one’s original theory or idea. 24.138.41.20421:42, 25 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Where is the evidence that theft is involved? Ideas in the sciences are shared. If someone attempts to revise an explanation or a derivation sequence of formulas, that isn't theft. What exactly was Einstein referring to? I'd expect that he was referring to an attempt to incorporate quantum theory into classical/relativistic physics. DCDuring (talk) 19:26, 26 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 1 day ago2 comments2 people in discussion
SoP? The LPD includes -morph, the stress-imposing -ic and -morphic /ˈmɔːrfɪk/. But it also includes the stress-imposing -ical /-ical/ and the stress-imposing -ically/ɪkli/.
morphic, a. Biol. (ˈmɔːfɪk) . Of or pertaining to form; relating to the anatomical shape; morphological.
1868 E. D. Cope Orig. Fittest (1887) 111 The majority of specific characters are‥‘morphic’ as distinguished from developmental. 1894 Buckman Inf. Ool. Ammonites (Palæont. Soc.) 382 Morphic equivalents must always be compared. Ibid. 444 Such forms are only morphic equivalents.
Latest comment: 1 day ago1 comment1 person in discussion
In a work I've been reading (1945) I find a number of terms where one kanji uses the kyūjitai form and another kanji uses the shinjitai form. (For example, the term "純經済的" uses the kyūjitai form 經 (instead of 経) and the shinjitai form 済 (instead of 濟).) Is there a good way of handling this? Should it be indicated at all? TE(æ)A,ea. (talk) 00:25, 28 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
пилотка in Macedonian, IPA might be wrong
Latest comment: 1 day ago1 comment1 person in discussion
Latest comment: 21 hours ago7 comments4 people in discussion
I'm not trying to start a debate over whether Hamas is good or not, but I'm just trying to establish some facts that we can apply for our definition which has been edit-warred a bit in the past weeks. Some relevant parts of Hamas's 2017 charter (2017 Hamas charter § External links) are:
18. The following are considered null and void: the Balfour Declaration, the British Mandate Document, the UN Palestine Partition Resolution, and whatever resolutions and measures that derive from them or are similar to them. The establishment of “Israel” is entirely illegal and contravenes the inalienable rights of the Palestinian people and goes against their will and the will of the Ummah; it is also in violation of human rights that are guaranteed by international conventions, foremost among them is the right to self-determination.
19. There shall be no recognition of the legitimacy of the Zionist entity. Whatever has befallen the land of Palestine in terms of occupation, settlement building, Judaization or changes to its features or falsification of facts is illegitimate. Rights never lapse.
20. Hamas believes that no part of the land of Palestine shall be compromised or conceded, irrespective of the causes, the circumstances and the pressures and no matter how long the occupation lasts. Hamas rejects any alternative to the full and complete liberation of Palestine, from the river to the sea. However, without compromising its rejection of the Zionist entity and without relinquishing any Palestinian rights, Hamas considers the establishment of a fully sovereign and independent Palestinian state, with Jerusalem as its capital along the lines of the 4th of June 1967, with the return of the refugees and the displaced to their homes from which they were expelled, to be a formula of national consensus.
I want to take an informal poll. How should we describe Hamas's goals?
Destroy Israel and establish a Palestinian state
Establish a Palestinian state within the pre-1967 borders
Establish a Palestinian state within the pre-1967 borders without recognition of Israel (paraphrasing @Fenakhay)
An independent, Palestinian Islamic state and the Palestinian right of return
I personally go for 1 due to this part: "Hamas believes that no part of the land of Palestine shall be compromised or conceded". This implies that if Hamas fully achieves their goals, Israel will no longer exist. Ioaxxere (talk) 14:13, 28 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
Wiktionary is a dictionary, not an encyclopedia. Our job is to define terms based on how they're used in language, not to interpret manifestos or summarize political agendas. Take the entry for National Socialist German Workers' Party, for example. It's described simply as a far-right political party from Germany. It doesn't go into what the party did to the Jews or what its goals were. Similarly, the entry for Likud just says it's "a leading rightist political party in Israel", without mentioning its slogans or stated positions, like "between the sea and the Jordan there will only be Israeli sovereignty."
But the current definition of Hamas already goes further than either of those. It says the group "presses for an independent, Palestinian Islamic state and the Palestinian right of return", which is already interpretative. If we're not doing that for Likud or the Nazi Party, we shouldn't be doing it here either.
Trying to summarize what a group wants, especially based on just one document like a charter, can easily lead to bias or give an incomplete picture. That kind of discussion is better suited to Wikipedia, where there’s room to include sources, context, and different perspectives. Wiktionary has a simpler role. We’re here to show how words are actually used, not to figure out what a political group truly believes.
Latest comment: 8 hours ago2 comments2 people in discussion
My understanding (or assumption) is that there may be senses relating to crack cocaine, i.e. a druggie/junkie's confused head/brain, but also senses where somebody is just "cracked" or broken, as if they have brain damage. (Compare crackpot.) Is this true, and should we then split the etymology at least at crackhead? (I'm not sure if crackbrain ever means cocaine user.) 2A00:23C5:FE1C:3701:143D:F394:653:30E419:53, 28 July 2025 (UTC)Reply
I've heard "crackhead" used to refer to someone with no common sense, by someone who would never talk about illegal drugs in such contexts. Chuck Entz (talk) 03:56, 29 July 2025 (UTC)Reply